Featured Other Christian Denominations and King James Only

Right or wrong, the common thread of the KJV-only position seems to be control. This term may be objectionable to some, depending on how it might apply.

Some groups are banking on the fact that the language is often archaic, thus requiring explanation even for those whose first language is English. Elizabethan English is not our norm.

 

John 16:12-13

 

The Kjv pretty much was the only accepted Bible until 1881/1901. when the RV/Asv translations came out, but interesting to me the KJVO really gained steam when the Rsv and then Nas/Niv came out! Like the Kjv was being now threatened?

 

I have yet many things to say unto you.
but ye cannot bear them now.
Howbeit when he,
the Sprit of truth.
is come.
he will guide you into all truth:
for he shall not speak of himself;
but whatsoever he shall hear,
that shall he speak:
and he will show you things to come.
John 16:12-13

"My Bible states that was only given to those who wrote the original books!"

Where is the explicit statement in that passage?

 

Promise was made to just Hos Apostles and those under the outreach, such as Luke and Mark, but not to the 1611 translators!

 

What are you talking about?


You said, My Bible states that was only given to those who wrote the original books.
(that inspiration)

Please provide where your bible actually states what you said it states.

 

Inspiration only was given to the NT authors!

 

You say.
Now bible say please.
"My Bible states"

 

Were the Prophets and Apostles inspired by God to write or not His word?

 

"My Bible states"

 

The word of the Lord came to the Prophets, and the Spirit inspired the Apostles also!

 

"My Bible states"

Did you lose your bible and now all you can do is deflect by asking questions?

 

Nope, gave you plain scripture already!

 

Sir, you provided the reference which I typed out to see.
Then you provided your interpretation of said passage but no plain scripture that states
that only the originals are inspired.
This is your statement: "My Bible states".
Is it not in your bible?

Can you remember any of the words from your bible's statement(s)?
Can you use an exhaustive concordance to find the passage(s)?

Can you not find an explicit statement?
Or perhaps you would like to amend your phrase to, "My interpretation of My Bible states...

I have gotten off the purpose of this thread trying to make a point.
I apologize.

 

You may be right. My observation is limited, stemming mainly from personal experience with abusive churches and cults, which is more extensive than I would have liked.

 

I do not see you as presenting "the correct flow of KJVO history."

I have read over 150 post-1960 books by KJV-only authors, and I do not find that their KJV-only reasoning/teaching comes from the groups to which you appeal.

Are you in effect trying to impose James White's definition of KJV-only on others and demanding that they follow it? Perhaps those whom you criticize have a different and even a better understanding of what constitutes KJV-only than you or James White may have.

KJV-only author David Daniels tries to claim that KJV-only doctrine comes from the 1646 Westminster Confession of Faith, but he seems to be reading his own KJV-only assumptions into it (51 Reasons for King James, pp. 150-155). Because after mention of the original tongues are to be translated into the vulgar language of every nation, it mentions Scriptures and so David Daniels asserts "that these translations are called scriptures" so he assumes that means that they were saying that the translations are given by inspiration of God.