Brother Gill
New Member
I have been studing the KJV and I have been having some questions. Is the KJV without any error ? This whole thing of 1611 is bothering me. As of now I believe it is translated out of the good text (Textus Receptus) but we do not even hold a 1611. In fact it has been revised 12 times. There are two slightly different 1611 editions and six slightly different editions in the 1650s. There are even a few significant differences between the 1611 and the one we hold now. In Matthew 26:36 the 1611 says " Then cometh Judas and todays says Jesus. Also in Phl 3:19 Whose end is destruction, whose God is their belly, and whose glory is in their shame, who mind earthly things. Why is God with a capitial. This is not bashing the KJV. I am a KJV only. I just want some one to answer this for me.
Plaese forgive for the typos and miss spelled words.
Phl 1:18 What then? notwithstanding, every way, whether in pretence, or in truth, Christ is preached; and I therein do rejoice, yea, and will rejoice.:1_grouphug:
Plaese forgive for the typos and miss spelled words.
Phl 1:18 What then? notwithstanding, every way, whether in pretence, or in truth, Christ is preached; and I therein do rejoice, yea, and will rejoice.:1_grouphug:
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