Of course He does.
Don't misunderstand, I am not complaining against God. I have no problem with Gods choices.
(Deut. 7:6)
"For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth."
Please start a new thread on this topic: Is God racist?
Define racism since we all may have different definitions.
I have my biblical opinions on this, but don't want to derail this thread any further.
It appears to me the initial post concerned this subject.
I don't see how this is derailing the
thread.
If you want to start another, go ahead.
I will participate.
But since the Bible tells me no one was individually chosen before creation because once we were not a people of God.
But of course, once we were individually chosen, it was by means of being set apart in Christ on the basis of God crediting our faith as righteousness.
Note folks, the Calvinists do not answer questions, they create a smokescreed by asking questions designed to imply their opponents hold unbiblical views.
Disingenuous.
Note also the disingenuous redefinition of Christ dying for all mankind as meaning God has saved all mankind.
This is the sort on nonsense these people post nonstop.
Your views are nonsense Sir, and as one person put it, outrageous.
I showed you that your referenced verses did not support your conclusion.
Scripture, the word of God, taught that "racism, slavery, hate, inequality, and bias are evil."
Lets see if you will answer this question, which of the five points of the TULIP do you claim are false doctrine.
There was no redefining of anything.
Do you know what "atonement" means?
atonement
noun atone·ment | \ ə-ˈtōn-mənt
1 : reparation for an offense or injury : satisfaction
2 : the reconciliation of God and humankind through the sacrificial death of Jesus Christ
So did Jesus make "reparation for an offense or injury" and achieve "the reconciliation of God and humankind" for every person or not?
Limited Atonement says "No." and Universal Atonement says "Yes."
You have no idea what atonement means.
Your definition above is "home cooked."
Here is an actual view of its biblical usage:
exchange
of the business of money changers, exchanging equivalent values
adjustment of a difference, reconciliation, restoration to favour
in the NT of the restoration of the favour of God to sinners that repent and put their trust in the expiatory death of Christ
Thus reconciliation is achieved, not when Christ died as a ransom for all, but when God places individuals into Christ where they undergo the washing of regeneration.
Sorry chief, my "home cooked" definition came from the Merriam-Webster Dictionary.
"Atonement" does not appear in the NT, so it's "Biblical usage" meaning has nothing to do with Jesus except as a typology.
The word in Hebrew is kaphar and here is its outline of Biblical usage:
to cover, purge, make an atonement, make reconciliation, cover over with pitch
(Qal) to coat or cover with pitch
(Piel)
to cover over, pacify, propitiate
to cover over, atone for sin, make atonement for
to cover over, atone for sin and persons by legal rites
(Pual)
to be covered over
to make atonement for
(Hithpael) to be covered
So once again ... Were all people "covered over" by Jesus? Were "their sins atoned" for? Were they "reconciled"?
[The outline of Biblical Usage came from Larry Pierce and the Online Bible.
I could offer Strong’s Definitions or Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon instead if you have a preference.].