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Questions KJVOs Can't Answer.
- Thread starter skanwmatos
- Start date
Acts 7:5 KJV -- And he gave him none inheritance in it, no, not so much as to set his foot on: yet he promised that he would give it to him for a possession, and to his seed after him, when as yet he had no child.
Acts 7:5 New KJV -- And God gave him no inheritance in it, not even enough to set his foot on. But even when Abraham had no child, He promised to give it to him for a possession, and to his descendants after him.
Sigh! Here we go. Are you ready for this?
If the KJV had "God" and the NKJV had "he" then the KJVO Camp would be screaming that the NKJV is attacking God!They would say that God is correct and the LOWER CAP "he" was attacking the diety of God ETC...
Same old same old coming from the KJVO Camp!
Hey, why don't you KVJOists try something bold and new like answering these questions! Come on now, I used to be a KJVO! Bring me back to the camp with facts and not emotions.
In Christ,
David J.
askjo, askjo, don't you know that the KJV does the very same thing?
The KJV uses two figures of speech "God forbid" and "would to God" found in both the Old and New Testaments. In the majority of cases the word "God" does not appear in the Hebrew or the Greek.
A word, yes even the word "God" can be implied and determined from the context which is what both the KJV and NKJV translators have done.
It is not a crime. Both are still the Word of God.
HankD
skanwmatos
New Member
Please show me the word "God" in the Hebrew or Greek text of the following KJV verses all of which say "God" in the English but none of which say "God" in the Hebrew or Greek.
Genesis 44:7, Genesis 44:17, Joshua 22:29, Joshua 24:16, 1 Samuel 12:23, 1 Samuel 14:45, 1 Samuel 20:2, 1 Chronicles 11:19, Job 27:5,
Lu 20:16, Romans 3:4, Romans 3:6, Romans 3:31, Romans 6:2, Romans 6:15, Romans 7:7, Romans 7:13, Romans 9:14, Romans 11:1, Romans 11:11, 1 Corinthians 6:15, Galatians 2:17, Galatians 3:21, Galatians 6:14.
Typical KJVO double standard. The NKJV is wrong for adding the word God, but the KJV is correct for adding the word God.
Ed Edwards
<img src=/Ed.gif>
AMen, Brother David J -- Preach it!
I always appreciate Brothers shuch as you
those who are like-minded and are in
the unity of the Spirit of Truth
concerning this issue.
May all God's best blessings be unto Brother
David J, his family, and his minsitry
this very day. Amen!
Ed Edwards
<img src=/Ed.gif>
Amen, Brother TC - Preach it!
I always appreciate Brothers such as you
those who are like-minded and are in
the unity of the Spirit of Truth
concerning this issue.
May all God's best blessings be unto Brother
TC, his family, and his minsitry
this very day. Amen!
Ed Edwards
<img src=/Ed.gif>
Amen, Brother Dr. Bob Griffin -- Preach it!
I have added to my Double Standards list.
I always appreciate Brothers such as you
those who are like-minded and are in
the unity of the Spirit of Truth
concerning this issue.
May all God's best blessings be unto Brother
Dr. Bob Griffin, his family, and his minsitry
this very day. Amen!
Askjo:Did the KJV and the New KJV follow the SAME Greek text?
John Ankerberg said: "The NKJV is based on the SAME Greek text as the 1611."
D. A. Waite refuted him by saying: "This is not completely true." Waite explained more about that in his book, "Foes of the King James Bible Refuted."
Again, no crime.
And has Dr. Waite ever been wrong in his KJVO stuff?
John Ankerberg said: "The NKJV is based on the SAME Greek text as the 1611."
D. A. Waite refuted him by saying: "This is not completely true." Waite explained more about that in his book, "Foes of the King James Bible Refuted."
Again, no crime.
And has Dr. Waite ever been wrong in his KJVO stuff?
Askjo:Did the NKJV follow the Greek TR? Let us compare the KJV, the NKJV and the SAME Greek text.
Acts 7:5 KJV -- And he gave him none inheritance in it, no, not so much as to set his foot on: yet he promised that he would give it to him for a possession, and to his seed after him, when as yet he had no child.
Acts 7:5 New KJV -- And God gave him no inheritance in it, not even enough to set his foot on. But even when Abraham had no child, He promised to give it to him for a possession, and to his descendants after him.
The Greek Text: kai ouk edwken autw klhronomian en auth oude bhma podoV kai ephggeilato autw dounai eiV katascesin authn kai tw spermati autou met auton ouk ontoV autw teknou
Please show me where the word "God" on this Greek text.
Here's a CLASSIC example of the great KJVO DOUBLE STANDARD at work. It's OK for the KJV to say, God Forbid" in divers places when "God" is NOT found in 'me geniteo', but NOT OK for the NKJV to say, "God" when God is clearly the antecedent of ther pronoun 'he'.
Ed Edwards, take note!
Acts 7:5 KJV -- And he gave him none inheritance in it, no, not so much as to set his foot on: yet he promised that he would give it to him for a possession, and to his seed after him, when as yet he had no child.
Acts 7:5 New KJV -- And God gave him no inheritance in it, not even enough to set his foot on. But even when Abraham had no child, He promised to give it to him for a possession, and to his descendants after him.
The Greek Text: kai ouk edwken autw klhronomian en auth oude bhma podoV kai ephggeilato autw dounai eiV katascesin authn kai tw spermati autou met auton ouk ontoV autw teknou
Please show me where the word "God" on this Greek text.
Here's a CLASSIC example of the great KJVO DOUBLE STANDARD at work. It's OK for the KJV to say, God Forbid" in divers places when "God" is NOT found in 'me geniteo', but NOT OK for the NKJV to say, "God" when God is clearly the antecedent of ther pronoun 'he'.
Ed Edwards, take note!
Dear askjo,
RE: Brother Will’s piece:
I can’t believe you are so blatantly duplicitous as well as so naïve.
According to this article you noted by Brother Will Kinney , he says that the use of “God forbid” in place of “me genoito” is OK because several lexicons, such as Thayer, Liddel & Scott, and Baer, Arndt & Gingrich all tell us this is a perfectly acceptable way of rendering this expression.
In addition he further states that there are a whole host of Bible versions both before and after the King James Bible that do the very same thing.
Here we have Will citing the works of men to justify the fact that the KJV translators have added or dropped words to and from the text, but when the MV translators do the same thing it is anathema!
Not that this practice has anything intrinsically evil about it because I (and most others here) realize that it is an acceptable practice of the arts and sciences of translation in view of the idiom of the given language and the context of the surrounding text to be translated.
Yes, God said to not add to His words (e.g."God forbid"). However, if it is understood within the Hebrew/Greek idiom and within the given context in which it is given, it is not a violation and often times unavoidable.
Personally I prefer "May it never be" or simply "No" in answer to a rhetorical question in the Scripture.
The word-for-word restriction is to the ORIGINAL language copies of the autographs and the blatant and obvious addition of word(s) of a translation.
I personally can acceot "God forbid" as a dynamic equivelance.
However, the KJVO have reserved unto themselves the exclusive right not only to dictate the rules of translation but to change them at will in the middle of the game when they get behind in the score.
Deuteronomy 25:13-15
Thou shalt not have in thy bag divers weights, a great and a small.
Thou shalt not have in thine house divers measures, a great and a small.
But thou shalt have a perfect and just weight, a perfect and just measure shalt thou have: that thy days may be lengthened in the land which the LORD thy God giveth thee.
HankD
RE: Brother Will’s piece:
I can’t believe you are so blatantly duplicitous as well as so naïve.
According to this article you noted by Brother Will Kinney , he says that the use of “God forbid” in place of “me genoito” is OK because several lexicons, such as Thayer, Liddel & Scott, and Baer, Arndt & Gingrich all tell us this is a perfectly acceptable way of rendering this expression.
In addition he further states that there are a whole host of Bible versions both before and after the King James Bible that do the very same thing.
Here we have Will citing the works of men to justify the fact that the KJV translators have added or dropped words to and from the text, but when the MV translators do the same thing it is anathema!
Not that this practice has anything intrinsically evil about it because I (and most others here) realize that it is an acceptable practice of the arts and sciences of translation in view of the idiom of the given language and the context of the surrounding text to be translated.
Yes, God said to not add to His words (e.g."God forbid"). However, if it is understood within the Hebrew/Greek idiom and within the given context in which it is given, it is not a violation and often times unavoidable.
Personally I prefer "May it never be" or simply "No" in answer to a rhetorical question in the Scripture.
The word-for-word restriction is to the ORIGINAL language copies of the autographs and the blatant and obvious addition of word(s) of a translation.
I personally can acceot "God forbid" as a dynamic equivelance.
However, the KJVO have reserved unto themselves the exclusive right not only to dictate the rules of translation but to change them at will in the middle of the game when they get behind in the score.
Deuteronomy 25:13-15
Thou shalt not have in thy bag divers weights, a great and a small.
Thou shalt not have in thine house divers measures, a great and a small.
But thou shalt have a perfect and just weight, a perfect and just measure shalt thou have: that thy days may be lengthened in the land which the LORD thy God giveth thee.
HankD
Who cares about divers weights? When I don my scuba gear, I put on a weight belt. So?
Moses musta been heading to the Red Sea again and this time searching for the wreckage of the Pharaoh's army!
(sorry - some days this is all so laughable . . if it weren't so tragic)
Moses musta been heading to the Red Sea again and this time searching for the wreckage of the Pharaoh's army!
(sorry - some days this is all so laughable . . if it weren't so tragic)
Where do you think the Hebrews got the weapons to whip all of their enemies in the promised land? You don't think they carried them around for 40 years in the desert, do you? It took them at least a month to get all of the sand and mud out of the horns they blew at Jericho.Originally posted by Dr. Bob Griffin:
Who cares about divers weights? When I don my scuba gear, I put on a weight belt. So?
Moses musta been heading to the Red Sea again and this time searching for the wreckage of the Pharaoh's army!
