Featured Restrictions on tongues

What does Paul mean in 1 Corinthians 13:1, "If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels", where "Ἐὰν ταῖς γλώσσαις τῶν ἀνθρώπων λαλῶ καὶ τῶν ἀγγέλων" shows that there are 2 distinct classes meant, "humans" and "angels". Even though the former does refer to our earthly languages; the latter clearly does not?

 

1 Corinthians 14:22

So there are two kinds of tongues going on. One is natural known languages but unknown by some in the same congregation. If one stands and gives a testimony in Hebrew but some only speak Greek then someone must interpret that.

Then there is the kind of tongues that goes on that is directly of the Holy Spirit and need not interpretation nor does it need restrictions placed on it by Paul. An example of it is seen in Acts 2 on the day of Pentecost.

Men do not now nor have they ever spoken in the tongues of angels. While I am quite sure they speak to each other Paul was using hyperbole to make a broader point.

 

correct. though Paul could have had the gift of "heavenly" languages?

 

One of Paul's accounts of his conversion, is interesting, "And when we had all fallen to the ground, I heard a voice saying to me in the Hebrew (or, Aramaic) language, ‘Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting me? It is hard for you to kick against the goads" (Acts 26:14)

 

No such monster

 

well, read what Paul himself says, "I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows. 3And I know that this man was caught up into paradise—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows— 4and he heard things that cannot be told, which man may not utter." (2 Corinthians 12). Here Paul is speaking of his own experience, where he was caught up into paradise, and he heard things that cannot be told, and which cannot be repeated. "ἤκουσεν ἄρρητα ῥήματα ἃ οὐκ ἐξὸν ἀνθρώπῳ λαλῆσαι", means that Paul did not have the "right" to repeat what he had heard, not that he was unable to undersatand what was being said!

 

Acts 2:4 says that the Holy Spirit gave those who spoke in "other languages", the ability to do so: "And everyone present was filled with the Holy Spirit and began speaking in other languages, as the Holy Spirit gave them this ability." This is no doubt a gift where a person can speak in a gathering in a language other than their native tongue. It has been witnessed by missionaries, where they were sometimes able to speak to those they were reaching with the Gospel, in their language, having never learned the language. I do believe this is true, and that the Lord does do this even today.

 

Acts chapter 2 is the best example! The disciples spoke in the languages that were known to their hearers, but they had not learned, as the Spirit give them the ability, so that they too were able to hear what Peter said. I see no other interpretation to this passage. If the Holy Spirit did this on the Day of Pentecost, why is He restricted in doing so today? God is God, and is able to do all things, even though our "theology" might not allow it!

 

5And there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men, from every nation under heaven. 6And when this sound occurred, the multitude came together, and were confused, because everyone heard them speak in his own language. 7Then they were all amazed and marveled, saying to one another, “Look, are not all these who speak Galileans? 8And how is it that we hear, each in our own language in which we were born? 9Parthians and Medes and Elamites, those dwelling in Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya adjoining Cyrene, visitors from Rome, both Jews and proselytes, 11Cretans and Arabs—we hear them speaking in our own tongues the wonderful works of God.” 12So they were all amazed and perplexed, saying to one another, “Whatever could this mean?”

 

I myself am not a cessationist. What goes on in the church walls under the guise of tongues is ungodly. If it happens it will happen on the mission field.

 

where in the NT does it say that God cannot or does not do this since this time, and even today? It is our personal theology that puts God into a box and sort of tells Him what He can, and cannot do!

 

what evidence do you have for this? I am not Pentecostal, but have friends that are, and went to a big Pentecostal Church in London many years ago. I saw first hand the Mighty Works of our Great God! You could be in danger of grieving the Holy Spirit by saying this is "ungodly"!

 

God has given all we need that pertains to life and Godliness. The canon is closed by God Himself.

 

WHAT has that got to do with the Gift of Tongues? It is mans "theology" that gets in the way of the Work of the God of the Holy Bible!