that when translating hebrew texts into other languages such as English, read them as referring to jesus in OT prophecies?
or to render them strictly as a Jew would in seeing them?
Should a translator 'read into" NT Messianic understandings?
Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Yeshua1, Nov 14, 2012.
-
-
John of Japan Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
Otherwise, the translator should simply translate the text, letting the chips fall where they may. -
Crabtownboy Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
No interpretation. Translate the word into English as closely as possible letting the chips fall where they may.
Meaning is lost in any translation and trying to make it say what I would like it to say would be very dishonest.
The JW translation is a prime example of translating to fit their beliefs. -
Are you referring to a verse like Isaiah 7:14 - virgin or young maiden?
KJV: Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
NSRV: Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.
Or did you have something else in mind with your OP? -
Yeah... I'd like to have an example to know what you are talking about.
I'm of the opinion that translations should avoid the term "christ" and translated χριστος with the term "messiah" or "annointed". But that is NT and Greek.
What is it that you are referring? -
-
But I don't want to be a rabbit trail. I want Yeshua1 to give an example of what he is talking about. -
John of Japan Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
-
As a jew or a liberal christian would take it to be referring to the immediate situation of Isaiah announcing that the current king would have a child, while an Evangelical sees also a refernce to messiah jesus!
Same way, "My servant/Son Of man" would be viewed in a different fashion by both! -
-
So, lets say for example I wrote a note back in 1985 that said, "The Lord will choose a Godly woman for me to marry." Now in 2012 if I were to translate that note into another language, would it be acceptable for me to write it as, "The Lord chose June, a Godly woman, for me to marry." They would both be true, but the latter one reflects the fulfillment of the original - thus adding the details that were not known when I originally wrote it in 1985.
Personally, I would rather have the NT fulfillment represented in the translation, since it offers a much more accurate statement in light of history. In the case of Isaiah 7:14 it makes much more sense to me to have the word "virgin" instead of "young maiden" (both are accurate and acceptable translations of the Hebrew word, Almah) because of the fulfillment by Jesus' birth.
Can you show any translations that would be better left within a non-Messianic context? -
-
-
-
"He's a modern day messiah." It already means leader or savior in modern lingo. Therefore, I still don't think most English speakers would get "anointed one" out of "Messiah" any more than they would out of "Christ." Both are foreign words.
-
-
John of Japan Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
(1) Linguistic reasons, starting with usage: The LXX translates almah as parthenos, which is unarguably "virgin." Again, the NT quote of Is. 7:14 at Matt. 1:23 also uses parthenos, unarguable "virgin." Again, I have looked at every single OT passage using almah, and in every single case "virgin" is a possible meaning. On the other hand, I've never seen a non-OT usage of almah that was unarguable referring to a non-virgin.
(2) Historical reason: there is no historical record that I know of where the Jews interpreting Is. 7:14 at the time it was written saw it as referring to a person contemporary with Isaiah, as is argued by the liberals and by evangelicals who have bought into this flawed argument. -
-
John of Japan Well-Known MemberSite Supporter