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The Bible wars.

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by 37818, Oct 25, 2018.

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  1. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    There exist between all the manuscripts and 100% reading. What would convince you a 0.5% reading is better than 99.5% reading? Show me an exception.

    Did you know the words "into salvation" in 1 Peter 2:2 is really the MT reading? 65% mss suport the reading. Yet it is rejected because it is commonly held not to be the MT reading.
     
  2. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Accidental verses delibrate ms alterations.

    The long reading of Mark's epilogue, 99.8%. Compare Colossians 1:23 to Mark 16:15.
     
  3. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    In this discussion are you defending readings which are to be understood to beGod's inerrant word. Because that is what is at issue.

    The AV has had a long run. The ASV to the RSV. The JW NWT, NWT 2013, and all the other popular modern translations.

    Which side are you on?

    What turned me off on the NASB 1977 was "begotten God" in John 1:18. (NWT "begotten god") And John 6:47 omitting without note "in Me." Also I later noticed "resulting in" used in Romans 10:10 twice. (NIV 1978 "so that" in Acts 2:38)

    Translation choices turned me off on the NKJV. How something is translated is a different issue than manuscript reading choices.

    The KJV as "bad" as some think is over all yet better. I know its problems.
     
    #43 37818, Aug 7, 2020
    Last edited: Aug 7, 2020
  4. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    How is Jesus being called God there in nas a bad thing?
     
  5. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Two things, first it does not say the man Jesus is God, even if it was correctly "begotten God." Second you are arguing 99.5% of the mss are in error.
     
  6. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    So, what 37818 happens when the early bad manuscripts join the Byzantine text against the Textus Receptus? Do the bad manuscripts become the word of God on those occasions? Does the Textus Receptus become bad then? How about when the bad manuscripts and the Textus Receptus agree against the Byzantine Text. Does the Byzantine Text become bad?

    Don't all manuscripts have errors in them?
    What happens when a modern Bible corrects an error in the KJV? Is it a good thing then?
     
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  7. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The choice of the variant reading "begotten God" over "begotten Son" is accepted by many scholars. To claim those that made that choice have "disqualified" a translation is arbitrary

    In John 6:47 again some variant readings have "believe in Me" and others "believe in God" but the earliest and best witnesses do not contain the "object" and so once more many scholars adhere to the shorter rendering.

    As far as translating "eis" as "resulting in" at Romans 10:10 I do not see any difference in meaning from "into." You are still righteous whether you believe into righteousness or you believe resulting in righteousness.
     
  8. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    God's word is immutable, Psalms 119:89. Man corrupts it. Luke 4:4.
     
  9. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Again, you're not an authority on what are the best mss. & neither am I. You're just guessing which are "better", forgetting that GOD preserved them ALL.
     
  10. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    I would rely upon the MOST-ACCURATE witness. With that being impossible to establish, I'd go with what supportd the known facts & evidence the most.
     
  11. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    37818, you have NO Scriptural support for your KJVO myth. Now, you just CANNOT get by that fact.

    Just WHERE in Scripture is God limited to just one English translation of His word ??????????????????????????
     
  12. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    eis, so that, resulting in, in order to. We do not agree. Manusript readings with very little support because they are among the oldest rarest readings to be taken over the common 99%+ readings. The actual word of God . . .
     
  13. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    It really depends on which methodology, given the evidence and arguments, a person finds persuasive. If someone is a majority text advocate, primality it all comes down to numbers. If one is a critical text advocate, then a majority reading (in and of itself) is not convincing given other important criteria. CT advocates live by the mantra "manuscripts (or witnesses) must be weighed, not merely counted."

    For those interested here are a few articles addressing key issues concerning the majority text (three by Gordon Fee, three by Daniel Wallace, and one by Michael Holmes).


    https://www.etsjets.org/files/JETS-PDFs/21/21-1/21-1-pp019-033_JETS.pdf

    http://library.mibckerala.org/lms_frame/eBook/Nodern 1.pdf

    [Eldon J. Epp, Gordon D. Fee] Studies in the Theor(bookos-z1.org)
    See Fee chapter 10, p. 183-208


    https://www.etsjets.org/files/JETS-PDFs/37/37-2/JETS_37-2_185-215_Wallace.pdf

    The Majority Text and the Original Text: Are They Identical? | Bible.org

    Some Second Thoughts on the Majority Text | Bible.org


    The ‘Majority Text Debate’: New Form of an Old Issue - The Gospel Coalition


    Also check out Michael D. Marlowe comments concerning Fee's critique of Pickering.
    What about the Majority Text?
     
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  14. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    How do you know which expert or experts are correct? How about Dr Wilbur N Pickering, f35 GNT.

    God's word is immutanble, Psalms 119:89. Man corrupts God's word, Luke 4:4.

    ". . . God, who is in the bosom of the Father, . . ."
    versus
    ". . . Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, . . ."
    One reading is of God the other is not of God.
     
  15. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Jesus argued to those who did not listen to God saying, "He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God."

    Either the words, ". . . Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, . . ." is God's word or ". . . God, which is in the bosom of the Father, . . ." but not both.
     
  16. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    I believe Jesus is God, along with His Father & the Holy Soirit. Don't YOU believe likewise ?
     
  17. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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    One should probably read about the Majority Text from those who promote it instead of it's enemies.

    Robinson, The case for Byzantine priority
     
  18. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Explicitly the man Jesus is not God, 1 Timothy 2:5. That Jesus as the Christ is both the man and God I agree, 1 John 5:1, Ephesians 3:9.

    Now either the words of John 1:18 being God's word as, ". . . Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, . . ." or ". . . God, which is in the bosom of the Father, . . ." but not goth.

    Now remember Jesus argued against those who do not listen to God's words saying, John 8:47, "He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God."
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    You can certainly pick one side of a biblical difficulty and claim that choice is the word of God. But truth requires the observation that sometimes the NASB rendering is best, sometimes the NKJV is best (or the WEB) and sometimes even the dreaded KJV is best.
     
    #59 Van, Aug 8, 2020
    Last edited: Aug 8, 2020
  20. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Well, one pick is error and the other is the truth. I have found the KJV with all its known faults proves to be the best choice for study of the written word of God. I have the other translations as well as other study tools.

    Each textual issue must be takine one at a time. While the problems may be mostly this or that, it is never an all or nothing choice to be made. My general choice has proven to me to be the KJV. I am not a KJonlyist.

    What is and what is not the word of God is at issue. Luke 4:4.
     
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