That is called proof-texting to support your presupposition and is another hermaneutical mistake.
You have ignored the context in which Paul was speaking.
Plus, I believe the ESV translates that verse a bit better than the KJV.
I don't have my Greek NT handy right now.
However, I'd be willing to bet the Greek does not use the definite article "the" before the word pillar.
Anyway, that verse does not support the idea that the church somehow makes the Word valid.
Food for thought...
True, the word "pillar" or "buttress" has no definite article but the word "truth" does.
Also Bible-boy, where did the Church go in the passage you quoted?
Shoudn't it be?
ESV 1 Timothy 3:15
if I delay, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, a pillar and buttress of truth.
Exactly. The church is the defender and propogator of the truth. It is not hte one who created it or the one who has the sole authority to determine its meaning. The church is only as good as the people in it, and only as correct as the people are correct.
But the unchanging standard is the truth, not the changing views of the church.
That is called proof-texting to support your presupposition and is another hermaneutical mistake.
You have ignored the context in which Paul was speaking.
Plus, I believe the ESV translates that verse a bit better than the KJV.
I don't have my Greek NT handy right now.
However, I'd be willing to bet the Greek does not use the definite article "the" before the word pillar.
Anyway, that verse does not support the idea that the church somehow makes the Word valid.
Food for thought... </font>[/QUOTE]Neither does it use the definite article in John 1:1 - as any JW will be delighted to point out to you
As for proof-texting, like no evangelical here has done this on this thread
:rolleyes: