I think that if you listened to the sermons you would see he is not doing any of what you suggest here.
You are going somewhere that he doesn't suggest during his teaching.
Universal church - or whatever you want to call it.
Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Salty, Apr 10, 2016.
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Iconoclast Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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Martin Marprelate Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
Two excellent posts by Brother Joseph and Biblicist! Thank you, brothers.:)
These things are a reminder that however much we may love our Reformed Anglican or Presbyterian brethren, and however much we read their commentaries, there has to be a limit to our unity. The producers of the 1689 Confession were eager to emphasise the unity of all the Dissenters after the expulsion of James II, but they saw very clearly that the differences went further than baptism in itself, but pertain to the doctrine of the Church. They therefore made a point of distinguishing between Baptist and Paedobaptist ecclesiology. However many Presbyterian commentaries we may have on our bookshelves, we should make sure that we have ones written by a Baptist on Romans, Galatians and Hebrews.
A few years back, I spent long hours arguing with the Presbyterians over on the Puritan Board. One important point is that as soon as one accepts that the Church began with Abraham, one has a problem, because if Abraham founded the Church, he put infants into it. The people of God may begin with Abraham, but the Church begins at Pentecost. The Lord Jesus said, "I will build My Church......' The tense is future. -
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Squire Robertsson AdministratorAdministrator
Me, I hold the church in embryo can be seen fleetingly in the Gospels. However, it was born on Pentecost.
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For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. John 12:49
He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am? And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God. And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven. And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.
Is it Jesus, the Son of the living God, who builds or is Son speaking for God the Father and it is the Father who will build the church? Just what stone was being spoken of in Matt 16:18?
Consider: And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone; Eph 2:20 When did the stone that had been rejected become the head of the corner? Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole. This is the stone which was set at nought of you builders, which is become the head of the corner. Acts 4:10,11 Was the stone rejected by being crucified and became the head of the corner by the resurrection?
Consider also: Col 1:18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
When was the stone laid upon which the church would be built?
Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead; -
Iconoclast Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
="The Biblicist,
Looks like your view was discussed here;
http://www.baptistboard.com/threads/landmarkism.22107/ -
The Biblicist Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
Another thing to consider is that immersion in the Shekinah glory in direct relationship to the "house of God" was an event that occurred AFTER the "house of God" is said to have already been finished:
Ex. 40: 33 And he reared up the court round about the tabernacle and the altar, and set up the hanging of the court gate. So Moses finished the work.
34 ¶ Then a cloud covered the tent of the congregation, and the glory of the LORD filled the tabernacle.
The same is true with the temple by Solomon, the immersion in the Shekinah glory occurred after Solomon had finished the work. The immersion simply signified that what had already been finished was "acceptable" for public worship because it conformed to the divine pattern.
When Jesus had instituted the last ordinance he said:"I have finished the work" the Father sent him to do but he had not yet gone to the cross and so he was not talking about the redemptive work. The writer of Hebrews claimed that Jesus sung a song in the church and the only record of Christ singing a song is in the same context of the institution of the Lord's Supper (Heb. 2:12).
Acts 2:41 says that those 3,000 believers were "added" to the church (Acts 2:41,46). How can you "add" to what does not already exist. For example, if you did not have a bank account, how could you "add" to it? What they added to was an assembly in Acts 2:1 that Luke had just previously described as habitually assembling "from the baptism of John" unto the ascension. It was that same assembly described in Acts 1:15-26 that gathered once more in Acts 2:1 and was "added unto" in Acts 2:41.
What text in Acts 2 claims the church was born on that day? None! When salvation and service are confused then all kinds of things are imagined. For example, arguing that the church could not exist prior to the cross is like arguing salvation could not exist prior to the cross and yet the Bible fully repudiates that idea and provides pre-Mosaic Abraham as the "father" of all who are justified by faith in Christ.
Arguing that the church could not exist prior to Pentecost is also like arguing that one could not be saved before Pentecost and yet the scriptures repudiate that idea.
The immersion in the Shekinah glory as Biblical precedent in God's word as something that occurs AFTER the house of God has been finished rather than the birth of God's house.
Why would you suggest the church was not born until Pentecost? -
The Biblicist Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
In fact, the phrase "the house of God" is only found a total of 88 times in Scripture and 1 Timothy 3:15 is the 86th occurrence. Every single solitary occurrence prior to 1 Timothy 3:15 refers to the appointed place for public worship and administration of the ordinances.
He simply confuses what signifies PUBLIC WORSHIP with personal salvation. From Genesis to Revelation the two are never confounded by Biblical writers. Just because public place of worship provides all kinds of salvational declarations does not mean it is the fulfillment of those salvational declarations. -
Iconoclast Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
Bethel is the first occurrence if I remember correctly. Is it in Gen 28?
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Questions? Will there be an end to the building of the church? When? Why? What if anything will follow? Is it the church that is being built by the receiving of, the firstfruit of the Spirit or something else?
Turn, O backsliding children, saith the LORD; for I am married unto you: and I will take you one of a city, and two of a family, and I will bring you to Zion: Jer 3:14
Does that verse speak of the building of the church or is it speaking of something else?
BTW these are just questions that come to mind. No particular reason for asking them other that to hear your or others thoughts. Thanks to all. -
I agree with what you have said in regards to Acts 2- one cannot "add to" something that had no prior existence, therefore the church contrary to popular did indeed exist prior to Pentecost. When do you believe is started, with Adam, Christ's earthly ministry, or none of the above? -
The Biblicist Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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The Biblicist Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
What is interesting is that the "firstborn" not only obtained a double portion but also acted as the appointed administrator for family public worship or was the priest in the family. God killed all the "firstborn" of Egypt as his final plague, thus removing all the family designated priests of this false religions from the families of Egypt. At the time of Moses, the tribe of Levi was taken in the place of the firstborn in all of Israel to do serve or minister in the public house of God. The New Testament church is identified as the church of the "firstborn ones" (literal Greek) or those who serve in the public house of worship. -
Squire Robertsson AdministratorAdministrator
The operative words in my comment are in embryo. So, the NT ekklesia was conceived (if you'll pardon my phraseology) in Matthew and born in Acts.
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The Biblicist Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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The Biblicist Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
Prior to Pentecost it was composed of baptized believers in Christ. Prior to Pentecost it had both ordinances. Prior to Pentecost it had appointed leadership. Prior to Pentecost it had been on a previous limited commission (Mt. 9) and later given a more extensive commission. Prior to Pentecost it had a qualified Pastor (Jesus). Prior to Pentecost it had a membership roll (Acts 1:15). Prior to Pentecost Jesus declared that "I" will build it not that the Holy Spirit would build it. In fact, the Holy Spirit is described as "another" comforter who would provide leadership for something already in existence due to His work. It would seem the church had long been "conceived" before Pentecost.
Where in Acts 2 do you find any rationale for the idea of embryo versus conceived? -
Iconoclast Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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The Biblicist Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
However, the church is not heaven, it is not God, it is not salvation, it is not part of redemption, it is merely the MEETING PLACE between man and God. Bethel did not save Jacob, but Bethel is the PLACE where God revealed himself to Jacob. Pastor Culver crosses over the same line that Roman Catholics cross over when teaching about the church - he confuses the MEETING PLACE with REVELATION that occurs at the meeting place and thus merges both into salvation. -
The Biblicist Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
The idea that the church began on Pentecost has absolutely no Biblical foundation whatsoever! No text supports it. Nothing in Acts 2 supports it but everything in Acts 2 contradicts that idea.
That idea is not based upon Scripture but upon antibiblical inferences that salvation did not exist prior to Pentecost. Biblical salvation in relationship to the fall of man in Genesis is SPIRITUAL UNION with God because the Fall of man is SPIRITUAL SEPARATION from God. Where there is no SPIRITUAL union with God there is no life, no light and holiness, thus NO SALVATION.
That idea is based upon CHURCH SALVATION and is just another form of Roman Catholicism. Ordinarily the Roman Catholic doctrine is NO SALVATION OUTSIDE OF ITS CHURCH. The Reformed doctrine of the church is the same - NO SALVATION OUTSIDE ITS CHURCH because they interpret "in Christ" to be SPIRITUAL UNION with God through Christ through the baptism in the Spirit and since neither the church or the baptism in the Spirit are Old Testament realities - hence, the Pentecost origin of both the church and salvation "in Christ" are the consequences.
The problem is a fundamental ignorance of the difference between the kingdom of God and the church of God and a fundamental ignorance of the most basic level of salvation. -
Iconoclast Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
I forgot that you were a landmark er and as such I do not think you can get what is being offered by Pastor Culver because it clashes with your system.
I did not offer these ideas initially with you in mind.
It is clear you are missing what he is correctly teaching.
I will show it directly when I get to my computer.
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