Even if they are fallen angels they were bene elohim at 1 time weren’t they. Further—have you ever considered that this is the event that caused this particular group of angels to fall. Thus, bene elohim would be appropriate if its describing holy angels who fell at this time. But in reality bene elohim really has nothing to do with holiness but direct creation by God (ie no parents) & mighty power.
"There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men"
However IMHO this doesn't describe good angels (they wouldn't sin), and I have difficulty believing that evil angels would be described here in this context as "the sons of God".
Steve-did u read my previous post—“sons of God” (bene elohim) in Hebrew really has nothing to do with being good or bad its about direct creation by God & mighty power. Further---answer this—did holy angels ever rebel against God?
Same here.
It makes for a very interesting discussion, though.
I've seen good arguments on both sides.
I think it's one of those things that we'll find out once we get to heaven, but until then, I won't lose any sleep over it, either way.
You know as much as I support the angelic theory of Gen 6—I want lose any sleep over the debate itself. But having a problem with the phrase “sons of God” referring to angels or fallen angels in Gen 6—depends on how important the original language is to biblical interpretation. If you disagree with the (fallen) angelic theory don’t let it be over something that is so easy to prove with original language. I can see other problems with fallen angel theory—but bene elohim (Heb sons of God) actually helps the fallen angel view—at least take the time to find plausible biblical evidence about why u disagree & not just that
“it doesn’t seem right” or that “it doesn’t make sense”.
B/c when it comes to the Bible its not about logical sense but genuine biblical interpretation—regardless of our own personal ability to accept it.
Of course I agree, and yes, I've studied it.
It's much more than that for me.
My big problem with the fallen angels theory is that Christ died for mankind, not angels.
To make people half human, half angel. . .to me that defeats the cross.
Christ didn't die for angelic beings.
How on God’s green earth does that defeat the cross! Please explain ---b/c no 1 ever suggested that Jesus died for tha half breeds! Further—if u want to get technical—the Bible says he didn't die for angels (no clear mention of what happened 2 tha half breeds,)--but many believe the half breeds became demons (look at Jewish tradition & the early Christian church)—regardless the inability to prove what happened to the half breeds really plays no role on this matter. But to be honest many believe Ezek 32:27 describes their fate. So I really don’t see ur point.
I think it was said earlier in the thread that fallen angels breeding with women was one of Satan's many attempts to try to extinguish the bloodline of the Messiah.
This is another reason I believe it.
Ok my wife says I have to go spend time with her now b/c I got church tomorrow—so Amy take over this debate—u r more than equipped to answer the question we’re getn right now—I’ll check back later—God bless- & merry Christmas 2 who ever reads this!:jesus:
Psa 82:6 I said, "You are gods, And all of you are children of the Most High.
Jer 35:4 and I brought them into the house of the LORD, into the chamber of the sons of Hanan the son of Igdaliah, a man of God, which was by the chamber of the princes, above the chamber of Maaseiah the son of Shallum, the keeper of the door.
Here are two examples where the Hebrew
ben 'elohiym does not mean angels.
Gen 19:1 Now the two angels came to Sodom in the evening, and Lot was sitting in the gate of Sodom. When Lot saw them, he rose to meet them, and he bowed himself with his face toward the ground.
Here is an example where the Hebrew word for angels is mal'ak
So once again it is hard to be dogmatic about this issue.
No brother go look at ur Hebrew again—not the exact same Hebrew phrase (look at the exact Hebrew in Gen 6 compared to ur proposals)—good try 4 an internet research though—but if u dont know Hebrew, lets try a Hebrew lexicon—lets get a lil more detailed than the internet. But regardless---look at the details of Gen 6 with 2 Peter 2:4 & jude 6 (please read my post on 45)-thank u--1 more thing --yes--malak means angel--but so does bene elohim its Hebrew idiom--look it up. I'm just glad ur takin the time 2 do this! but i will say this--What u just posted gives more credibility to the judges/rulers theory than the Sethite (b/c of the closeness of the Hebrew phrase)
& if this is ur interpretation—I do rate it 2nd on my list—but I do have my reasons b/c it really doesn’t disprove the angelic view. (if u really want 2 know why i feel this way pm me)