Only some older translations, most notably the KJV, use the term "Holy Ghost," and are consistent throughout the NT in its usage. The newer translations properly use the term "Holy Spirit," also consistently.
Nonsense! The term "holy ghost" is used 89 times in the KJV NT and the term "holy spirit" is used 6 times and "spirit" referring to the holy spirit is used 6 additional times. The KJV translators tried to make a distinction between the person of the Holy Spirit and His influence or work in the lives of His children. They were not always 100% consistant largly through differences of opinions of the interpretation of the passage.
You think it isn't consistent to always translate pneuma as "ghost" when preceded by hagios but translate it as "Spirit" when not so preceded? While I would label it "consistent," I also believe it represents a great deal of confusion.
didn't Ghost at the time of the Kjv version actually mean the same as Spriit to us today, but when we read back into it, sounds like they weredescribing Casper the friendly Ghost, as that is our connotation of that term being used?
The original translation was done by 47 scholars and they did not always agree on certain words. So some places they used Ghost and some places they used Spirit to accommodate the different renderings by different scholars.
Pneuma, translated "spirit/Spirit" from the Greek, literally means "breath." It is used throughout the New Testament of both the Spirit of God and also the spirit of man. The Greek word phantasma, translated accurately as "ghost" in both Matthew 14:26 and Mark 6:49 -- referencing Christ's appearance as He walked out of the storm across the waters to the boat carrying the disciples on the Sea of Galilee -- means an appearance, an apparition, a spectre. Translating pneuma as "ghost" is ridiculous. It doesn't hold up to inspection. So how did the KJ scholars make such a goof?