Originally posted by michelle:
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Nobody here believes that. The ones who are limiting God are the ones that say he can/did only do it in one translation, instead of several.
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How can you honestly and sincerely say, or believe that the modern versions are without error at the same time saying the KJB is without error, when it is obvious that the modern versions have OMITTED what the scriptures in the KJB include as based upon the underlying texts? Is it error to omitt? Is it error to change meanings of words contrary to the context and the rest of scriptural truth? Indeed it is, and therefore it is obvious that both cannot be innerrant and infallible - in other words without error. Many believe that because the mv's are their own separate translation, based upon other preserved manuscripts, that this JUSTIFIES them. This couldn't be further from the truth, as those manuscripts contradict what the churches have ALWAYS BELIEVED, and have given testimony or witness to them. This attempt at justification stems from erroneous assumptions that oldest means best. So even though you claim you believe they are all inerrant and infallible, does not make it true, as the evidence and truth in what you believe shows otherwise. You are in denial.
Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle