Where is the word "given" stated or implied in the text?
2 Peter 2:1But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing upon themselves swift destruction.
Van, you can make assertions all day, but if you cannot show the actual reason in the text, then your assertion is empty of support.
You should go back and read full posts. You took one line of mine out of context and assumed a meaning. That's the same thing you do with Scripture so I am not surprised.
Jesus bought those heading for swift destruction.
This is the scripture that every Calvinist must deny because it demonstrates their false doctrine of Limited Atonement is unbiblical nonsense.
2 Peter 2:1 says the false teachers were bought, yet not given to Christ for salvation because they are heading for swift destruction.
So simple a child could grasp it but not one Calvinist... Go figure
Van you should realize that simple logic is beyond the abilities of those that are determined to not understand it. As for austin complaining that you do not answer questions well he should not say that to much as he refused to answer a clear question from me on another thread when ask several times. Just shows the double standard they will try to apply.
2 Peter 2:1, ". . . But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lordthat bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction. . . ."
Cross reference: Jude 1:4, ". . . For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ. . . ."
Thanks for making the connection. Judas Iscariot is a perfect example.
Judas was of the House of Israel, a people purchased of God, yet he was not redeemed or justified by faith (indeed many of Israel were/are not). Instead, the Bible tells us Judas was created for this role. He was ordained to his condemnation as Jude shares.
Perhaps you were not trying to support the OP, but you did a marvelous job of supporting the OP. Thank you.
Ordain {(of God or fate) decide (something) in advance.} So if the Calvinist version of God, who determines all things, has ordained something does that mean that it is only possible? No.
According to Calvinism, it will happen just as God ordained. So those that are in hell are there because God made sure they went there. That is a sad view the Calvinists have of our loving God.
When God ordained the suffering of Job at the hands of Satan, did it happen as God ordained or did Satan have free will to go outside the bounds of God's ordinance?
Regarding those ordained to hell. Do all sin? Are the wages of sin death? Has not God ordained that the wages be justly paid for by all sinners?
Is God unjust in granting mercy to whom he chooses to grant mercy...by His own ordinance?
Indeed, in my OP, I addressed the topic. I have given Van all this time to exegete 2 Peter 2:1 and he has never done so. He has made an assertion that 2 Peter 2:1 means "bought but not given" and he tells us that we cannot figure it out.
Of course the reason why no one can figure it out is because that is not what the verse says. Instead, that is what Van says, while not once being capable of exegeting the verse.
We might as well close this thread since my point is made in exegesis of the verse and there has been no other exegesis given.