My question is this simple 'Are the Byzantine mss the same as the Antioch mss (line) or are they differant?' :confused:
1cross+3nails=4given
Antioch or Byzantine?
Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by DeclareHim, Aug 25, 2004.
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Has anyone actually established that there is such thing as an "Antioch line" of manuscripts? Because it strikes me as a KJV-only bit of fiction built up around Acts 11:26.
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Actually the Antioch v Alexandria was a bit of conjecture from WESTCOTT & HORT! Sorry I have long since lost the source of this quotation, but found it in my cyber-files!
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OK; however, it's not entirely clear to me whether it is Westcott and Hort who came up with the "Antioch line," or this author who is citing them.
We could read this piece as saying, "To illustrate Westcott's point, let's suppose two texts were copied, one sent to Alexandria and the other to Antioch. . . ." -
Very true. I've never found anyone who believes in a SEPARATE "Antioch" line except some radical onlies who gave no support.
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Westcott & Hort are evil idiots when collecting
Greek source texts; they are good geniuses when
indentifying evil Alexandrian texts. -
Wescott and Hort had so many other problems that why in the world would I trust them on this?
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good as the Anglican KJV translators (all 48
of them). What you seem to "know" about them
is one-sided and probably not true. I've
read some of these anti-Wescott & Hort
books and they seem to excell in partial
quotes that are out of context.
Nice thing about knocking Wescott & Hort
is that they are dead and cannot defend
themselves. Of course, the KJVO doesn't
have that problem for the KJVO movement is
so new they don't hardly have any dead greats.
Token on-topic paragraph.
The Antioch/Alexandria dichotomy smells
of KJVOism bow to stern.