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Yeshua1
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Most of the early Christian "Creeds" have the heresy of "subordinationism", of Jesus Christ from God the Father, in the Godhead from eternity; and the Holy Spirit from the Father and Jesus Christ. This is against the Bible which Teaches that The Three Persons are equally YHWH, and therefore there cannot be any Person that is "greater" than the other.
The "Confessions", as in the WCF, also are man-made, theological biased, that also have heresies in them.
The Holy Bible, in its 66 Books, in the Original Autographs, IS ALONE THE Infallible, Inerrant, God-breathed, Word of Almighty God, represented in Versions like the KJV, NKJV, NASB, ESV, etc.
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Every church pretty much as a statement of beliefs, and Confessions just flesh them out with scripture references!
Yeshua1
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"SavedByGrace,
[The Holy Bible, in its 66 Books, in the Original Autographs, IS ALONE THE Infallible, Inerrant, God-breathed, Word of Almighty God, represented in Versions like the KJV, NKJV, NASB, ESV, etc.]
which is exactly what the 1689 teaches.
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As does every valid Confession of faith does
Yeshua1
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God ordained that the Cross of Christ would be his eternal answer to the fall, to show off His glory for all eternity, as what the Devil did for evil he turned it for his glory and good!
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WHERE is the Scripture reference that says God was PLEASED with the fall???
Yeshua1
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yeah, and even you have you heresy!
Of God's Covenant – God’s eternal covenant was to provide eternal life for those of His choosing , based on crediting their faith as righteousness, keeping His covenant of love
Which can be taken as "limited atonement"!
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All limited to some extent the Atonement, save for Universalist!
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this does NOT say that God was PLEASED by the fall!!!
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I don't, and I do NOT believe in universal salvation!
Yeshua1
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for lazy Christians!
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Do not think those behind the 1644 or 1689 were "lazy" in regards to thinking thru theology!
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stop trying to defend a faulty, man-made, unbiblical "confession", just because it is "reformed"!
Yeshua1
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Did the fall catch God by surprise?
Yeshua1
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You do not limit the atonement being effectual towards just the redeemed?
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I have been a born again Christian since Feb 1982, and in all these years have not used any creed or confession for any of my theology! I read the Bible...
Yeshua1
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More due to it being "biblical"
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can you define the word PLEASED?
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the death of Jesus Christ is universal, and those who "repent and believe" will be saved. No "limit" on this anywhere in the Bible, only in "reformed theology"!
asterisktom
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"SavedByGrace,
[The Holy Bible, in its 66 Books, in the Original Autographs, IS ALONE THE Infallible, Inerrant, God-breathed, Word of Almighty God, represented in Versions like the KJV, NKJV, NASB, ESV, etc.]
which is exactly what the 1689 teaches.
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Were it not for the future tenses in chapter 32 of the 1689 LBC I would probably still today adhere to it. But that particular point was the means of separating me from some friends that I still consider brothers in Christ, though they may not reciprocate that charity.
I know that "No creed but the Bible" is often a refuge for the theologically lazy. But that is the option I voted for. We are certainly obligated to search out truth in the Scriptures. The one who does not do this is simply not growing in grace, possibly not making his calling and election sure.
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OED says of "pleased", "Affected by feelings of satisfaction or pleasure; contented, gratified , in good humour"
Yeshua1
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Its not either/or, and I do agree Bible alone is the inspired authority, we can use them as sources / much that we use other books!