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Featured can catholics Go To God Directly In prayers?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Yeshua1, Jun 22, 2012.

  1. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Call it what you want. Comparing Scripture with Scripture is exactly what the Bereans did in Acts 17:11, and Paul commended them for it.
    That is your opinion. You are entitled to it. But it doesn't make you right. The incidents may be at different time periods, but the truths being taught are the same as the language indicates.
    No he doesn't. It is your interpretation of a figurative passage. If he does, then demonstrate your belief by showing any passage in Scripture where any of the apostles forgave sin. They didn't, for they didn't have that power. In fact your interpretation contradicts the Bible, for the Word of God explicitly says:

    "Only God can forgive sins." Mark 2:7
    He is teaching on discipline in the local church, which yes, does involve forgiveness, just as the passage in John 20 does require--forgiveness. But in what aspect?
    That authority is not clear. If it were clear you would be able to point to some instances where they exercised such authority but you can't. It is obvious that your interpretation is wrong.
    I'll stop you here just to say that no part of the Bible is "non-relevant." Always remember that.
    I realize the RCC has a myriad of authors--too many to count, too many to remember, to many to write down. They are all categorized in a huge mythical source called Tradition which can include anything--factual or not. May I remind you that the Bible has but One author, and He is the Holy Spirit. The Bible is inspired by God the Holy Spirit and has no contradictions in it. Both passages quote the words of Jesus. They may have been at different times in the life of Jesus, but that doesn't take away from his inspired truth.
    I know both passages quite well, and can probably quote them to you by memory. Whether or not they are in the same period of his ministry is not that relevant, as Jesus had to teach his disciples many things many times over. How many times did he tell his disciples that he was going to die, and still they never understood his words? They didn't grasp his teachings, though he told them again and again. There are many truths in the teachings of Jesus that are taught more than once. This one happens to be repeated as well. I am not saying it is the same event, but rather the same truth being taught.

    You have the problem of giving evidence of where in Scripture any apostle forgave any person's sins. They didn't. The Bible expressly teaches that no man can forgive sins; but God alone. To teach that man has the power to forgive sins is blasphemy.
     
  2. 33ad

    33ad New Member

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    They do every time they go to confession

    Inprosona Christi, the priest listens as Christ would listen
    As Christ appointed him to in John 20- 22-23
     
  3. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    This is a fallacy, (and heresy), for no man can listen as Christ listens.
    Christ is God. By your logic, all priests are making a claim to deity.
     
  4. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    is jesus unable to get ALL prayers to his father directly? is he not mighty enough, does he require assistance?

    who give the "absolution' for sins commited, God or man?

    Since the Lord Himself will be the one to forgive us, since the father ONLY is to be talked to on it, what purpose does a RCC priest serve in the forgivenes process?
     
  5. Zenas

    Zenas Active Member

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    You need to ask Jesus that. He's the one who set it up that way.
     
  6. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    No sir he did not! That is pure Roman Catholic fantasy or more correctly babylonian babbel.
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Strange that the Lord set it up, yet his own Apostles disregarded him in it!
     
  8. Zenas

    Zenas Active Member

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    And this looks like Biblicist Baptist babbel. Biblicist rule of exegesis: If you don't like what scripture plainly says, ofuscate. If it's too clear to obfuscate, just change its meaning altogether and then claim context.
     
  9. Zenas

    Zenas Active Member

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    Yeshua, I gave you one instance of an apostle using the charism of absolution, 2 Corinthians 2:10, but you didn't like it so you ignored it. Are you of the Biblicist school of exegesis also?
     
  10. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    What Scripture? What context?
     
  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    from the "Gosepl according to Rome"
     
  12. Thinkingstuff

    Thinkingstuff Active Member

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    Good reference!!!!! Clearly Paul is following Jesus comand in exercising the authority given to him to forgive and retain sins and as he passed on his authority to the Church leadership in Corinth where he will forgive those whome they forgive like Christ will forgive those whom Paul and the other apostles forgive. Its consistent with the gospel of John.
     
  13. Zenas

    Zenas Active Member

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    I could go back through your posts and cite dozens, but what I had in mind this time is John 20:21-23. Biblicist, let me tell you how plain this is. For many years I regarded the Catholic practice of confession to a priest as strange, unbiblical and ineffectual. Then one day in the mid 1990's I was reading through John 20 and ran across these verses. I had read this many times before without giving it any thought. But this time it jumped out at me and I recall exclaming, "There is a scriptural basis for this Catholic practice!"

    I read the Bible footnotes and they gave some explanation about how this really was talking about the apostles preaching the gospel, but it wasn't convincing. It wasn't convincing because it was so unrelated to what the text was saying. If Jesus wanted to talk about preaching the gospel He would have been clear about it like He was in the synoptics.

    That experience is what got me started toward the Catholic faith. I'm not there yet but all I'm lacking is the formalities.
     
  14. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    You talk about eisgesis or drawing a fish out of a garden this takes the cake:

    10 To whom ye forgive any thing, I forgive also: for if I forgave any thing, to whom I forgave it, for your sakes forgave I it in the person of Christ;

    There is an EQUALITY being expressed here as in James "ONE ANOTHER" and if you can't see it, it is because you choose to be blind! Forgiveness of each other can only be "in Christ" as it is Christ that commanded we forgive one another and such is obedience "in Christ."

    Hard up!
     
  15. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    If a child of God MUST confess their sins to a Preist then it is impossible for them to pray directly to God becuase God will not accept prayers of those embracing unconfessed sin unless it is confession of the sin first.

    Hence, Rome is denying that anyone can pray directly to God UNLESS they first come to men and confess their sins. This is so cultic that it is difficult to see how any rational individual could embrace such cultic nonsense as confessing sins to men and praying TO men living or dead.
     
  16. Zenas

    Zenas Active Member

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    Nonsense! Forgiveness is a Christian imperative but it is also practiced by complete infidels. I've seen it often and so would you if you got out more.
     
  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    is the preisthood of RC priests to them different than the priesthood ALL believers in jesus have before God?

    How does RCC seperate the two?
     
  18. Thinkingstuff

    Thinkingstuff Active Member

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    One is administrative the other not.
     
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    what does that mean?
     
  20. Thinkingstuff

    Thinkingstuff Active Member

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    Of course there is equality because he's acting on the Churche's behalf's as the Church acts on Christ behalf.
    And of course they are being obedient because Christians are obedient to Christ and we are to forgive one another.
     
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