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I could be wrong but this does not look quite right to me. The numbers don't seem to add up with what I have read before.
Comma Johanneum
Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by God's_Servant, Sep 15, 2010.
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Is the Comma Johanneum original?
Poll closed Oct 5, 2010.
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Yes
9 vote(s)36.0% -
No
11 vote(s)44.0% -
I don't know
5 vote(s)20.0%
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Well, you know what they say, numbers never lie, but liars use numbers.
That was only part of the article, the writer has many other arguments besides these. -
Of course, all of this relies on a view of inspiration that rests solely on the autographa. Why is it necessary for inspiration to rest only in the original writings, rather than the compilation of the final form? Is it not possible that the Comma Johanneum was indeed added later, but was nevertheless inspired by the Holy Spirit to be there?
I am unimpressed by textual critical sciences which are based more on secular methodologies for reconstructing ancient documents, than they are with discovering the precise words of God to man. -
HankD -
This is actually intelligible, and theoretically, based on popular modern text-critical assumptions, a reading found in only a few mss might be original, and thus his pleading here actually makes sense.
Jonathan C. Borland -
Gold Dragon Well-Known Member
This also highlights the problem with the "Majority Text" which just looks at a majority of greek texts, which is significantly skewed to post 9th century texts.
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You guys are focusing on and attacking his numbers only, what about the many other arguments he presents? For example;
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Again, though, I despise when you are discussing a modern english translation and someone brings up the KJ. I said nothing about the KJ, but rather a practice that some modern translations use. The next I know someone is saying something about the KJ, something not true by the way. Can I not discuss a modern translation practice and leave the KJ out? -
http://baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=67904 -
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KJV verse 7 "For there are three that bear record"
NIV verse 7 "For there are three that testify" -
One of these things is not like the other:
NIV footnote
1 John 5:8 Late manuscripts of the Vulgate testify in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. 8 And there are three that testify on earth: the (not found in any Greek manuscript before the sixteenth century)
TNIV footnote
1 John 5:8 Late manuscripts of the Vulgate testify in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. 8 And there are three that testify on earth: the (not found in any Greek manuscript before the fourteenth century)
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TR
verse 7 οτι τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες
verse 8 και τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες
CT
Verse 7 οτι τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες
So, which one is it more like? Verse 7 or 8?
KJV verse 7 "For there are three that bear record"
KJV verse 8 "And there are three that bear witness"
NIV verse 7 "For there are three that testify"
Note, "record" "witness" and "testify" all are the same Greek word μαρτυρουντες -
Late To The Party Am I
In fact, it is SINGULARLY Latin. The lack of any Greek manuscript testimony from the first ten-plus centuries, the lack of any testimony other than Latin, it is about as solid proof as possible that John did not write it.
Now....that is not to say that what it declares is not true, but it is not authentic. It is a distinctively Latin corruption that can easily be traced. -
This Statement Aroused My Curiosity...
That statement really confuses me. -
Hello
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