Biblically divorced?
As in when Jesus said MOSES allowed the people to divorce because of the hardness of their heart?
Just because it was tolerated does not mean it was God's Will for man.
Jesus said it was because of the handiness of the heart that Moses allowed them to divorce then, He said that
But
from the beginning of creation, ‘God made them
male and female.’
7
‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and hold fast to his wife,
8 and
the two shall become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two but one flesh.
9
What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.”
I do not see anything about divorce that God would call biblical.
It may be call historical but not biblical.
If biblical is meant as Holy or in the Will of God.
The fact remains, that Jesus never the less recognized the divorce, and also recognized that the woman was not currently married.
As far as your comment; yes, it refers to only polygamy. Unless you added the words "for his entire life" (which would then exclude widowers, as well). "Husband of one wife" means exactly what it says. He, right now, has only one wife. That is what it SAYS. Anything else, is adding to the Word, and is no different than what the Pharisees did.
The sole basis for divorce disqualifying a man for the ministry, is on the basis of it making him a man of bad "report." This, then, would apply to a man who had recently abandoned his wife. It would NOT apply to a man, who later realized it was wrong, repented, but was unable to reconcile to his wife for whatever reason. There is simply nothing in the Bible which would preclude that man (after a time of restoration) being in the ministry.
You obviously did not read what I said.
It is not the divorce nor is it made to make anyone look like a man of bad report.
Read the scripture without trying to twist it into a current worldview and you will understand the difference between God's will and man's will.
The scripture says nothing about divorce in connection with ministerial qualifications. It is completely silent. Should Paul have wished to state that divorced men were disqualified from the pastorate, he would have said that. He did not. He forbid polygamy. That is all. Saying you can only have one wife, BY DEFINITION, forbids polygamy, not divorce.
So I suggest you take your own advice, and quit trying to staple "divorce" into that verse.
Matthew 5:32 shows us one reason for Biblical divorce:
But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
1 Cor 7:15 specifies an "unbelieving partner" separating - not just abandoment.
Accepting the two execptions of adultry and the abandonment by an unbelieving partner stills leaves us with all the other divorces which do not meet those qualifications.
A divorced and remarried pastor not meeting those two exceptions IMO is not above reproach.
All the debating on earth does not change the final decision maker on the qualifications of a pastor, and that would be the local church.
Lots of different opinions have been expressed about the same verse.
If one's opinion does not square with the policy of one local church, then there are many no doubt that come closer to that person's opinion about what God says in the verse.
The discussion seems to focus on the central meaning, is it polygymy or divorce from a previous marriage?
It seems kind of odd that one of the qualifications for pastor listed in Scripture, having ones house in order, has not been mentioned.
1. The qualification is "blameless." Is a man blameless in the eyes of the church and the community? Focusing on one qualification will not answer that question. The fourteen things listed are examples of blamelessness.
Here's an example: Is a man divorced this week blameless? Most people would say no. There is at least some question, however small it might be. He knows the truth. Some others may be supporting him. But there will be a lot of questions, and the questions, by definition, mean that he is not blameless.
On the other hand, what about a man who was divorced thirty years ago? Is he blameless? He might be; he might not be.
But the two situations are different. The issue is blamelessness.
2. The "husband of one wife" is actually "one woman man." It refers, not to a man's marital status (whether married, divorced, polygamist, etc) but to his moral purity. The issue is, Is the man characterized by moral purity in his relationships with people?
By the standard of some arguing here, a man is still qualified to pastor even if he commits adultery but his wife doesn't leave him but instead works toward reconciliation. He is still "the husband of one wife." But we all recognize (I think) that he is disqualified (whether permanently or not is another matter, dealt with in point #1 above).
So focusing on these key issues will bring helpful clarification.
So, Jesus lied to the woman at the well when he told her...
Joh 4:17
The woman answered him, "I have no husband." Jesus said to her, "You are right in saying, 'I have no husband';
Joh 4:18
for you have had five husbands, and the one you now have is not your husband. What you have said is true."
Three things from this section of scripture, about how God views divorce:
#1 A divorce, though a one time sin, is nevertheless recognized by God. Jesus says plainly that she is right in saying that she has no husband, even though she has been married five times.
#2 The five husbands are placed in the past tense, by Jesus himself. She HAD five husbands...she does not now have any husband.
#3 Notice the parallelism for emphasis. He does not just say it once, but twice..."you are right in saying 'I have no husband'" and "what you have said is true."
Conclusion: unless Jesus is a liar, and I do not believe he is, God hates divorce, but nevertheless recognizes it. Therefore, it is on the same grounds as lying, stealing, or any other sin, and if you say divorce forever disqualifies a man, then so does a single lie.
Nope, I think the verse has to do with binding and loosening in heaven just like it says.
This might be a picture of a local church carrying out the work of the Lord that is in His will.
If you apply it to this situation, it would extend to the pastor in question.
He has the Holy Spirit guiding him, and should know whether or not he is called to a certain church, or for that matter, is qualified.
Common sense goes a long way.
Try it sometime.
Do we hold sin before being saved against a believer?
Do we say "You used to curse all the time so you can't be a pastor."?
How about "You used to be an alcoholic so you can't be a pastor."?
Why is it that we use divorce against a pastor when he very well might have been divorced before he was saved?
Remember that all of this was addressed to believers - not unbelievers.
I do agree that a pastor that divorces for reasons that are not shown in the Bible AFTER they are saved are most likely disqualified from leadership.
But I fully disagree that a pastor who did __________ (you fill in the blank with any sin) is disqualified from leadership.
After all, Paul was responsible for the death of many MANY believers - yet God put him in a very great position.
Why did God not hold that former sin against him?
Because he was now a new creation.
If God sees man as a new creation at salvation, shouldn't we?
I know that when I meet God face to face I can say "Father I tried to follow your word even if I thought it unfair at times.
I did not try to twist and massage the scripture to make it fit within my own will and desires.
I did not change Your Word up in order to make it match what was politically correct with the world.
None the less, I still need your grace, mercy and forgiveness, through Jesus Christ, so that I may be seen as justified by You."