Featured Is It Homophobia, or Knowing His Truth?

Your answer is in 1Cor 6:11A

 

Romans 1:26
Col. 3:5

Lust is not an outward act. It is an act of the heart. It is a strong desire.

Quite the opposite. What one does is a function of what one is.

You steal because you are a thief.

Exactly.

One lies because he is a liar.

Exactly.

Sin is a state of being. One commits acts of sins because his heart is corrupt. His emotions and desires are corrupt and vile. Sin is not what you DO. It is who you are.

That's exactly what you're doing. If one's desire is unnatural, there is no hallowed outlet for it. You are in effect saying that he must remain celibate, and worse, you're saying that his righteousness is in his celibacy though his apetites are vile.

From the point of view of Heaven, where there is no law, you are no better than Sodom. Your affections and apetites are corrupted. But on earth where sinners reign, for whom the law was made, it's simply that your corruption has not worked out to the degree of that of Sodom.

 

That's right.

You don't get to redefine terms to make your point. Though it be fornication, it is not against nature for a man to lie with a woman. It may be against Heaven, as Abraham's lying with Hagar, and David's multiple wives, and Solomon's concubines, but it is not against nature.

I've already told you that's not true, and why.

Puh-leeeze.

Lust is a strong desire of any kind. It can be natural or unnatural, but for a lust to be unnatural, it has to be corrupted to a degree that yours obviously (and thankfully) has not been.

The full soul loatheth an honeycomb . . .

 

the Bible condemns ALL sexual activity that would defile the marriage bed between a man and Women, so wether straight commiting adultery/fornication, or gay sex, both would fall under the condemnation and wrath of God!

 

So it's natural for heterosexuals to lust? Did Adam and Eve lust before the first sin was committed? What does Scripture show that first sin to be? And if no lust took place in nature before that first sin was committed, what's your Biblical authority for saying lust is natural? It may be natural in a fallen world, but BIBLICALLY no sin is natural.

That appears to be what you're doing though. In the beginning God created. There was no sin. Sinlessness is natural.

It is a sin and against God so it's very unnatural.

If it weren't against nature, the behavior would remain when God creates the new heaven on Earth. It will not remain because it is unnatural.

And you're wrong. I know you're trying to support your point. But you have no evidence that heterosexuals struggle less with fornicating than do homosexuals.

That's your definition. That is not God's. God did not create lust in the beginning. It is very unnatural. ALL of it.

 

Amen!:applause:

 

And even IF the United states legalized gay marriages, that behaviour would STILL be counted as sexual sinning before God, as He alone can define what marriage really is, not us!

 

:thumbs::applause: Is there a function on this board to give folks reps or blessings. :laugh:

 

I pointed you to the chapter and verse.

The point is that you are wrong when you draw no distinction between the battles in regarding apetites that are not against nature, and those that are. This is not only born out by the Scriptures, as I've shown, but also by the experiences of those who are in the battles.

Grow in experience and literacy, and you will see that I am right.

Toodles. :wavey:

 

Rom. 1:26 doesn't say anything about lust being natural for heterosexuals. Can you clarify what you THINK it's saying?

Col. 3:5 also doesn't say anything about lust being natural.

.

The point is that you are wrong to try to draw a distinction between fornication as anything but fornication. ALL sin is against nature as there was no sin when God created nature. It's extremely odd that you would try to make the sin of the homosexual different from the sin of the heterosexual.

And how would those in the "battle" know the difference? They only have their personal experience upon which to draw.

You still haven't shown any Biblical support for lust to be natural for the heterosexual and unnatural for the homosexual. You've tried to make Scripture say something it does not because that's what you THINK.

But there is nothing in Scripture that tells you anyone's sin is natural. The natural state of man is to OBEY just as God created the first man.

ALL sin is unnatural because the perfection that is God's truth is the standard by which Biblical "natural" is measured.

 

Think that Homsesexual sexual sinning is "unnatural/persion" of the oroginal intended relationship betwen a man and a Woman, but that also sexual sinning by straights would be a pervision of the order ordained by god in beginning, so that would be 'natural pervision"...

 

So there is a natural perversion and an unnatural perversion? That makes no sense.:laugh:

The homosexual perversion is the same sin as the heterosexual perversion-fornication.

It still seems like you guys are trying to make the sin of the heterosexual natural when all sin is unnatural.

 

My take on this biblically speaking is that homosexual acts violate the God given 'right" way to have sex, while 'straight' sex violates the 'right way" ....

BOTH are condemned by God as sins.....

 

Yep, it's Biblically fornication.

Straight sex outside of marriage.

Agreed.:thumbsup:

 

Think we have to remember that the Homosexual is gulity before God OT due to His "acts of perversions", its due to being found as sinners who chose to sin, as that is our very natures!

 

But that's the same for the unrepentant heterosexual who has sex outside of marriage.

 

yes, that is my very point, as BOTh straight and gay are condemned by god for NOT those acts commited, for they are the result of already being sinners before god, regardless what acts they do!

 

That is false. If a person has not committed a sin they are not held responsible for it by God. They will be held responsible for the sins they commit, not the ones they have not. Here is an example.
Deut. 24:16 Fathers shall not be put to death for their children, nor children put to death for their fathers; each is to die for his own sin.

 

Original Sin, and Adam represeted us before God, sothat when he sinned against god, ALL of us are seen by god as in that fall, so ALL born sinners, who confirm that by sinning!

That is why even IF one kept the law perfectly as jesus did, would not be able to save them, as still guilty before God of beingfound in Adam in a sin natured state!

 

You have never seen me disagree with that although I might use some differnt wording. So what is your question?