Word is binding but you understand the word based on your own interpretation and understanding.
Or your best educated guess.
Isn't there an issue there?
I mean what if you miss understand an aspect of the word based on you knowledge and understanding of it.
Are you then accountable to it?
Heb. 4:12. "For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart."
The overwhelming testimony of the scriptures as a whole make abunduntly clear that we can and should consider Gods scriptures, what we call "the Bible"(God never calls it that of course) as His complete and only authority for doctrine.
God couldnt be any more clear concerning this matter.
That doesn't answer my question. To repeat it and to clarify: where in the Bible does it say that the Bible is 'The Word of God'? Chapter and verse, please. For example, the verse from Hebrews which you quoted could have said, "The Word of God - which is the Scriptures - etc", but it doesn't. So I'm after a Scriptural reference which does.
You're still dodging the question. Let me rephrase it: where in the Scriptures does it say that all Scripture='Word of God'? 'Scripture' is a term that is used in the Bible.
In II Timothy 3:16 we read, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness"
Paul says the Scriptures were given by the inspiration of God. By Paul's use of the word "inspiration" the idea he's conveying here is that all Scripture is "God-breathed" (theopneustos). The Scriptures are the very Word of God - they came from, originated with, or more specifically, we're breathed out of God Himself. This was Paul's own appeal to the Scripture's authority, that they are the Vox Dei, the voice of God.
But we still have the problem that Heb 4:12 doesn't refer to the written word (II Tim 3:16 does - "Scripture") of God. It could equally refer to purely oral prophetic utterances which are/were not recorded in writing.
More importantly, Heb 4:12 could be referring to the effectiveness of Christ's verbal words as demonstrated in John's gospel "And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not, for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world."
We can't hear His verbal words, but the Bible does relay His collected words.
If one is asked to accept a truth that is not logical but logic is used to understand the topic and the statement that it is not logical, that makes no sense to me.
Acts 4:31, "And when they had prayed, the place where they had gathered together was shaken, and they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak the word of God with boldness."