Yeshua1
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He may be a nice guy, but he seems to hold an extreme form of KJV-only view.
He does not provide many details about his KJV-only view, but he did indicate that his view of the KJV is not based on any defense of the Textus Receptus.
He claims that the KJV is inspired, and he seems to make it the final authority in and of itself.
It would seem to be clear that he does not consider the Hebrew Masoretic text and the Textus Receptus to have greater authority than the KJV.
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Since he does not link the TR to the Kjv for its inspiration, would he be saying that God directly inspired their english translation superior to original languages texts?