Matt 1.25 states that Jesus was the "firstborn" son of Mary. By using the word first, it clearly shows the existence of other children. Scripture does not say "only"! Jesus was God's only son....not Mary's. Jesus told Nicodemus he must be born again in John 3.
what you have said is in the bible right enough but what I have said is not - slipshod interpretation is the cause of division, divergence, differences, disputes, confusion etc - wincam
Why should we care if Jesus did not specifically address you and me and say we must be born again?
Does the statement to Nicodemus not apply to you and me?
Does 2 Corinthians 5:17 not tell us that if we are in Christ we are a new creature? Is that different, in your understanding, than being born again?
I get the sense that you are attempting to split fine hairs.
I guess you are all mixed up and confused trying to make sense out of confusion by adding confusion to confusion - how can perpetual virginity possibly be in the bible - only the Church can pronounce on what applied later 'whatsoever thou shall bind is bolund -etc and whoever accepts you accepts me etc - wincam
The apostate churches are the one's who have abandoned Christian orthodoxy. What is orthodoxy? It is what the Early Church Fathers believed and taught.
How did you folks ended up talking about Mary and all these other things from the question on this thread?
By the way it seems that no one even checked the actual words of Jesus in John 3:3 He did not say to Nicodemus he had to be born again or to us as in "we" He said "Except a man be born again,"
That applies to all. For clarification: the word "man" is someone or anyone in Greek "Τις".