so what about the ALL that is used in 1 Timothy 2:1-6, where it is very clear tom those with no theological bias, that every use of ALL here means the entire human race! Yet those like yourself, will reject this because the Scripture here disagrees with your "theology"!
I don't use Strong's which is for those who hardly know any Greek. Try the Greek lexicons and you might learn a thing or two! Are you arguing against the need for repentance prior to salvation?
Jesus said, "Woe to the man by whom I'm betrayed! Better for that man if he'd never been born", showing He knew Judas would die in sin. He said that in Judas' presence. He even told Judas, "Go, do what you must do quickly." Thus, Jesus made it known to Judas that He knew Judas would be His betrayer, giving Judas the chance to repent of his evil intent before he did it.
Thus, no one can say Jesus was unfair to Judas. Judas was made aware that a terrible eternity awaited him if he betrayed Jesus, and Jesus knew who would betray Him. But Judas went through with his act anyway.
Now, just HOW did Judas betray Him ? He showed the temple police sent to arrest Him who Jesus was, by his kiss. He had told them beforehand that Jesus would be He whom Judas would greet with a kiss. Otherwise, the police woulda passed Jesus by, as He looked quite-ordinary, & they'd never seen Him before.
Yes the gospel goes to all men not just those of Israel not just Jewish people not just common people ,those in Authority, all men. but not all men are going to be saved
I have answered that question time and time again.
Why not start thinking for yourself, and see what scripture says the fallen must do to be chosen for salvation.