I'm preparing for church school next week, and our lesson is coming from John 5:1-12.
How do you interpret the word child and children in the first few versus? Is God talking about Christ in the first verse and the "children of God" (i.e. disciples) in the second verse?
You lost me here.
John 5:1-12 is about the impotent man that was laid up for 38 years by the pool of Bethesda of the 5 porches. Jesus Healed him and made him whole.
No talking of Child or Children there.
Maybe you gave the wrong verses.
However, if you are speaking of 1 John 5 then context makes it appearent as to whom it is referencing.
Thanks Allan.
I did mean first John--must have been typing to fast.
If the apparent context is correct, then I think I've got it.
Never can be to careful sometimes.
Context in verse 1 is speaking to those who are born again or a believer(individuals)
Context in verse 2 is speaking to all beleivers that should be holding a love for all other believers.
No Problem, God bless your studies and give you knowledge, understanding, and wisdon concerning those things He gives you to teach upon.
:wavey:
:godisgood: