I was sensing some sarcasm in his post.
KJV only??
Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by KobrinFamily, Aug 18, 2011.
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Wow not sure how my question turned into all this, I just wanted too know what version was used mostly :tonofbricks:
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That said, being a superior or inferior "translation" is not the issue, the source text is. The KJB is based on the Received Text, while the other modern versions (since 1881) are based on the Critical Text. These two texts are very different, the CT has nearly 3000 less words in the original Greek than the RT. The CT omits many verses found in the RT.
But the issue is not translation, the NASB is known to be an excellent translation, but it is a translation of the CT and therefore is not acceptable to those who believe the RT the correct text. -
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Therefore, the claim that suggests that all the other modern versions are based on the Critical Text is inaccurate. -
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InTheLight Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
These two texts are very different, the RT has nearly 3000 more words in the original Greek than the CT. The RT has many more verses than those found in the CT. -
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For instance:
KJV...Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ
NIV...Gal 2:16 know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ.
ESV Gal 2:16 yet we know that a person is not justified [fn] by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ
NKJV Gal 2:16 knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ,
Those little words, like of and in, are very important and can change a doctrine in a heartbeat. This one for instance.....are we justified by Christ's faith that the Father would do what He said when Christ died on the cross or are we justified by our own faith in what Christ did on the cross? -
From the NET Bible:
Or “faith in Jesus Christ.” A decision is difficult here. Though traditionally translated “faith in Jesus Christ,” an increasing number of NT scholars are arguing that πίστις Χριστοῦ (pisti" Cristou) and similar phrases in Paul (here and in v. 20; Rom 3:22, 26; Gal 3:22; Eph 3:12; Phil 3:9) involve a subjective genitive and mean “Christ’s faith” or “Christ’s faithfulness” (cf., e.g., G. Howard, “The ‘Faith of Christ’,” ExpTim 85 [1974]: 212-15; R. B. Hays, The Faith of Jesus Christ [SBLDS]; Morna D. Hooker, “Πίστις Χριστοῦ,” NTS 35 [1989]: 321-42). Noteworthy among the arguments for the subjective genitive view is that when πίστις takes a personal genitive it is almost never an objective genitive (cf. Matt 9:2, 22, 29; Mark 2:5; 5:34; 10:52; Luke 5:20; 7:50; 8:25, 48; 17:19; 18:42; 22:32; Rom 1:8; 12; 3:3; 4:5, 12, 16; 1 Cor 2:5; 15:14, 17; 2 Cor 10:15; Phil 2:17; Col 1:4; 2:5; 1 Thess 1:8; 3:2, 5, 10; 2 Thess 1:3; Titus 1:1; Phlm 6; 1 Pet 1:9, 21; 2 Pet 1:5). On the other hand, the objective genitive view has its adherents: A. Hultgren, “The Pistis Christou Formulations in Paul,” NovT 22 (1980): 248-63; J. D. G. Dunn, “Once More, ΠΙΣΤΙΣ ΧΡΙΣΤΟΥ,” SBL Seminar Papers, 1991, 730-44. Most commentaries on Romans and Galatians usually side with the objective view.sn On the phrase translated the faithfulness of Christ, ExSyn 116, which notes that the grammar is not decisive, nevertheless suggests that “the faith/faithfulness of Christ is not a denial of faith in Christ as a Pauline concept (for the idea is expressed in many of the same contexts, only with the verb πιστεύω rather than the noun), but implies that the object of faith is a worthy object, for he himself is faithful.” Though Paul elsewhere teaches justification by faith, this presupposes that the object of our faith is reliable and worthy of such faith. -
This seems like is it "Faith in jesus/or OF jesus?"
We know that faith by itself does not save us, its object of it, Christ, so would think that the "faithfulness" of Christ makes more sense here! -
Take your pick. -
But for many, the NKJV would be acceptable. -
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And both of these are opinions, as neither has any real substantial proof. -
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