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Featured KJV's Textual Error

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by SavedByGrace, Jun 14, 2021.

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  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    No Easter in Acts
    Holy Spirit not an it
    Jesus called both our great God and Savior by Peter and Paul
     
  2. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    Here we go again with the anti-KJV bandwagon.
     
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  3. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    Yet again, parroted mantras:

    That's basically German for "resurrection".

    Easter | Origin, History, Name, Facts, & Dates

    Is the Name “Easter” of Pagan Origin?

    Gabriel calls the Son of God a thing:
    Luke 1:35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

    Want to correct angelic prince Gabriel maybe? Tell him how your scholarly opinion trumps his, or how you're more royal than the King and won't have him call his Spirit it sometimes.

    That's because he is both...
     
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  4. Stratton7

    Stratton7 Member

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    Why must you turn everything into a KJO topic?
    The thread is about a supposed error in the KJB (which I disagree that it is). Not about what the KJO accepts.
     
  5. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Firstly, it is NOT correct to suggest "The evidence is overwhelming against you on this"!

    The earliest Greek manuscripts that include the words as part of the Epistle, are Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Vaticanus, both of the 4th century. And the Codex Alexandrinus, of the 5th. It is also part of ther text in the Old Latin, 2nd century, and the majority of ancient Versions, including the Latin Vulgate, 4th cent. Origen in the Greek, 3rd cent.

    The oldest Greek manuscript that omits the words, is the Codex know as K, which dates from the 9th cent. ONE manuscript of the Old Latin, a few of the Latin Vulgate. And ONE of the Coptic! That is it!
     
  6. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    The earlist Greek manuscript that omits the words, dates from the NINTH century! There can be a million that omit the words, but they are of a very LATE date! Get your facts right before posting nonsense!
     
  7. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    your own commets show that you ARE!
     
  8. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    The KJV is NOT a new translation of the Bible, but a REVISION! In any case it is WRONG here as it is elsewhere.
     
  9. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Can you NEVER accept FACTS??? the KJV is only a TRANSLATION that is NOT Inspired by God the Holy Spirit, and is the work of FALLIBLE humans, that DO ERR!!!
     
  10. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    if you disagree, then why not say why here?
     
  11. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Peter, where?
     
  12. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    to have the words in italics, is to show that they are not part of the Original Autograph, but added at a later date!
     
  13. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    You seem to really hate the KJV don't you?
    MB
     
  14. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    You just don't like facts! It is nothing to do with "hating" the KJV, but, as this is the only Version that has a following that are deluded into thinking, KJVO, like no other ever counts, it is important to show that it is only an uninspired translation like the others! You make accusations and then fail to provide any real evidence to back it up, like some others also do! Why not try to prove the OP wrong instead?
     
  15. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Fine. What was one of my statements that leads you to conclude that to be the case? And why was that statement false.
     
    #35 37818, Jun 16, 2021
    Last edited: Jun 16, 2021
  16. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    because you seem to always ignore the actual textual evidence, when it is against the KJV, and claim that the "majority" of very late Greek manuscripts must be right, because Wilbur Pickering says so! He is wrong, and you are.
     
  17. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    The NKJV accurately reads 'passover' in Acts 12:4 where the KJV incorrectly reads 'Easter'. The NKJV accurately reads "the love of money is A root of ALL SORTS of evil" in 1 Tim. 6:10 while the KJV incorrectly reads "the love of money is THE root of ALL evil" in that verse. The NKJV correctly reads "You shall not MURDER" in Ex. 20:13 while the KJV incorrectly reads "thou shalt not KILL" in that verse.
     
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  18. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    KJ"V", not KJ"B".
     
  19. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    That's why modern Bible translations are made with an eclectic mix of manuscripts. After all, there are more than 5K mss. available, and we cannot judge one over the other as GOD preserved them all. And the KJV was made with only 20 or so mss.
     
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  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Not really, as was asked to show why Nkjv better then Kjv!
     
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