I am l on familiar with it. If next door neighbors in Kansas City both move on October 30 this year-- one to Oklahoma and one to Minnesota-- and one can vote in this upcoming election in his new precinct and one cannot, they do not have a constitutional (or otherwise) guarantee of a right to vote.
They both have a constitutional right to vote. But your neighbor that moved to Oklahoma will be disenfranchised by Oklahoma state voting laws. Perhaps they should have cast an absentee ballot before they moved?
You know how silly your argument is? By your logic any US citizen that:
* is sent overseas by the military the last week of October does not have the right to vote.
* is on vacation out of state on election day does not have the right to vote.
* is in the hospital on election day does not have the right to vote.
(I'm sure I could think of more scenarios.)
Your mistake is assuming an inability to exercise a right is the same thing as not having that right.
If you are convicted of a crime, and done your time, then do you still have....
...the right to free speech?
...the right to free religion?
...the right to take part in a peaceful assembly?
...the right to vote?
Still, many felons have their voting rights restored, it just depends on the state. So, yes, if you are convicted of a crime, depending on the crime and the state, it's possible you could vote again.
sent overseas by the military -
You vote from (normally) your HOR -
On vacation------------------------
You vote absentee - as
I had to do once
In the hospital on election -----
Not sure exactaly, but I'm sure there is some provision
(any medical professionals out there how can answer this?
and btw - I am still waiting on an answer from my question on post #21
15th Amendment:
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
19th Amendment
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.
24th Amendment
The right of citizens of the United States to vote in any primary or other election for President or Vice President, for electors for President or Vice President, or for Senator or Representative in Congress, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any State by reason of failure to pay any poll tax or other tax.
26th Amendment
The right of citizens of the United States, who are eighteen years of age or older, to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of age.
HOW MANY TIMES - have you been told - those amendments ONLY preserve the right based on the mentioned (race, age, gender).
There is not specifieced right to vote - that is up to the individual state/commonwealth.
1) I, along with others have discussed where your answer is incomplete
2) The Constitution does NOT prohibit a felon from voting
3) The Constitution does NOT prohibit a person younger than 18 from voting.
You are correct. States can regulate this area of voting.
I never said it did. I said that if one is at least 18 years old, they have the right to vote, granted by the Constitution.
26th Amendment
The right of citizens of the United States, who are eighteen years of age or older, to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of age.
I guess a literal reading of that does not prohibit states from allowing under age eighteen people from voting. I'm pretty certain that if any state passed a law allowing it, it would immediately be challenged.
"It just depends on the state," you say. Does it just depend on the state whether the person has the right to free speech and free religion? If voting is a
guaranteed a right, why can it be taken away when those others can't?