Just to clarify, everyone, the word "concordance" in "translating by concordance" does not refer to Strong's (for the strong), Young's (for the young) or Cruden's (for the crude). It is a technical term in translation studies meaning "quality resulting from the effort to translate a given word from the original consistently by a single word in the receptor language" (The Theory and Practice of Translation, by Eugene Nida and Charles Taber, p. 208).
Van learned this term from me some time ago, and decided it made him sound more authoritative I suppose, but he is using it wrongly in this thread. :Cautious
I do understand his concern with a more formal translation such as the Nas/Nkjv as being better to use to study with, but do not agree with him that the Csb team intentionally tried to dilute the scriptures, nor that it is a bad version!
Yet another empty sack post.
Will Yeshua1, who apparently does not even know how to use a Lexicon, enlighten us on how many loose translation verses it takes to invalidate a translation.
I can answer the question ahead of time, he will dodge the equation.
How about how many angels can dance on the head of a pin.
On and on they post, avoiding any discussion of the topic, intent it seems on obfuscation.
Yet another mindless claim of mind reading.
He then attempts to tell you how I use words, straight out of the liberal left playbook.
I defined concordance.
Did he quote that?
Nope.
One thing for sure, posts like his make him sound less like an authoritative source. Did he provide a verse that could not be translated using the word for word philosophy method?
Nope.
So what we have here is an empty sack.
Yeshua1 apparently is unable to quote, so he guesses.
He guessed the KJV translated each Greek word to one English word, demonstrating all his comments about lexicons were not based on knowing how to use one.
How would you translate philostorgos G5387?
A factor associated with needlessly loose translation choices is lack of concordance, where the same Greek word meaning is translated using various forms of the same English word or phrase, such as when we see siblings we would understand fellow born anew believers are in view.
OTOH, brothers or brothers and sisters could be used, depending on context to indicate a family or Jewish connection.
The concept is simple and straightforward.
Anything wrong with using "however" rather than "but?"
Nope
Anything wrong with using "in this life" footnoted as "in the flesh?" Nope
Anything wrong with footnoting "virgin" with "or betrothed woman?"
Nope
So the CSB did not "loosely translate" this "problem" verse.
Case closed!
:)
Another issue seems to be that the translators do not present the minimum scope of the statement.
Let's take John 3:19,
Here "rather" could be interpreted as "instead of".
Indicating the people did not love the light.
But if "rather" was translated "more readily" then the overstatement is avoided.
Many of the apparent conflicts in scripture arise from these "expansionist" choices.
"Rather" is not an overstatement. Look at v.20. They " μισεῖ τὸ φῶς"( hate the light.). Rather is correct. NASB, ESV, LEB and NKJV all agree. How is this an issue?