Proof ALL does not mean all men

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by Scott Downey, Nov 12, 2020.

  1. SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    In 1Timothy 2:1-6, all means everyone without exception. Not the Calvinistic twisting of the passage
     
  2. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Read it again. It is talking about people groups/types, not individuals.
     
  3. SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    All people All Kings and all those in authority means exactly that. It is your theology that is more important than what the Bible actually says
     
  4. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    You read people as individuals, even thought that is not what it says, because of your theology.
     
  5. SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Rubbish. You speak of context. Now show from the context of 1 Timothy 2:1-6 that it means other than every single person ever created
     
  6. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Sorry, I don't isolate passages to prooftext. It is clear from the rest of Scripture this does not mean individuals. Broader context. Paul's other writings make this clear as well.
     
  7. Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    Im sorry I couldnt let this go. "The rest of scripture"? Thats not a standard to determine the context. Do you mind posting what exactly you think is the rest of scripture that develops the context for that verse.
     
  8. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    See post 109.
     
  9. SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    New King James Version 1 Timothy 1:15 This is a faithful saying and worthy of all acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, of whom I am chief

    Here is the previous chapter which clearly says that Jesus came to save SINNERS and not any select few
     
  10. Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    Im sorry I need more specific verses with your explanation of each.
     
  11. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    It also doesn't say all sinners unconditionally.
     
  12. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    And this is precisely my point, you read the word "all" into the verse even though it is not there. That is your position, not what Scripture actually states.
     
  13. Brightfame52 Well-Known Member

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    So you say it means all without exception. I dont believe it does, can you provide evidence ? Why doesnt it say all without exception ? Maybe you are twisting scripture.
     
  14. SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    How about reading the Scripture for what it is
     
  15. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    That's what we are asking you to do. You are supplying words that are not there.
     
  16. Brightfame52 Well-Known Member

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    I am. Do you see all without exception in the passage ? Or are you reading that into it
     
  17. SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    You have to show that all in the passage does not mean every single person in the world. The problem with people who hold your view is that you cannot accept what the Bible actually says because it would prove that your theology is wrong
     
  18. SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    So why should all in "all have sinned" mean every single person. You guys misuse the Bible for support of your own theology
     
  19. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Now wait a minute, how come we have to show it does not mean all people in the world and you don't have to show that it does?
     
  20. Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Because all is clear to mean each individual in the context of Romans 3:23