I agree with you (apart from the "flirting", because I have believed the thousand years of Revelation to be figurative for as long as I can remember.
Question about the Kingdom
Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by J.D., Oct 3, 2007.
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I agee there is no difference. -
exscentric Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
Just a thought.
" I agee there is no difference."
If you assume they are the same then this is true, however if you can find any indication that KOFH might refer to lost and saved together then John 3.3 might show you a slight difference.
"Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God." -
Do you take everything in Revelation to be literal? -
If Revelation contains figurative language - and no sane person can deny that it does - why is it essential to take that one phrase, "a thousand years", literally?
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skypair -
As to scripture, read Rv 20 showing the MK and then read Rev 21-22:5 regarding the EK.
skypair -
skypair -
And I'm guessing that what you are trying to say is that the MK is near perfect, and the EK is perfect. Yes? -
[FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]THE KEY IS THE CHURCH[/FONT][/FONT][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]The key to all the mysteries of the Book of Revelation is found as we ought to expect) in the first chapter, where the occasion of the writing of the Book, by whom dictated, and for whom intended is made crystal clear. The theory so widely held today that the Book has no relevance to the Church apart from the first three chapters, is so utterly at variance with the opening address that the wonder is that it has ever obtained credence. Against this extraordinary conclusion we plead the following:[/FONT][/FONT][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]Just be careful of the typos - whoever transcribed the book for the Internet seems to have made a few. For example, "the even churches" in the excerpt above should of course be "the seven churches".
[FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]1. The blessing pronounced upon all who read this Book, who hear its words and who keep its sayings (verse 3).[/FONT][/FONT]
[FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]2. The events of the Book were imminent at the time of writing; “The things which must shortly come to pass” – “The time is at hand” (verses 1 and 3).[/FONT][/FONT]
[FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]3. The Book as a whole, and not in part, is dedicated to ‘the even churches which are in Asia’ - which we hope to show can only mean the sevenfold or complete Church of our Lord then existing and to exist to the end of time (verse 4).[/FONT][/FONT]
[FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]4. The special relationship which John the apostle bore to the universal Church as her brother and companion in tribulation (v.9).[/FONT][/FONT]
[FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif][FONT=Tahoma, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]5.The vision of Christ as the guardian, guide and avenger of the Church in all her conflicts and tribulation in the world (v.12-20).[/FONT]
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This passage makes amill position difficult because Satan is to be bound during this time. Can a case be made to suggest Satan is currently bound right now? Or how does satan being bound in a supposed figurative language play out? -
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Yet when satan is loosed, he doesn't seem to have much trouble rounding up a rebellion. Why is that? -
2 Timothy2:1-4: I asked that question because you said that what what you seen in Revelation you didn't see any reason to take it any other way than fiurative and then listed passages that should be taken in that way. It appeared that you saw the whole book as fgurative.
I didn't mean that Revelation is entirely figurative in an absolute sense, but I can see where you might have thought I meant that. The fact that some language is figurative is not evidence that Rev 20:1-6 should be taken that way as well. But if the genre of the passage is figurative, there needs to be a compelling reason to take a particular portion as literal.
This passage makes amill position difficult because Satan is to be bound during this time. Can a case be made to suggest Satan is currently bound right now? Or how does satan being bound in a supposed figurative language play out? I think the amil position on this is that Satan is bound (prohibited) from executing his destructive will on the Church, unless permitted by God for some greater purpose, and even then Satan is limited to specifically what God allows. Satan's relation to Job is an example of this principle. Do you believe that Satan will be bodily bound by a literal chain in a literal bottomless pit? I'm not trying to be a smart aleck, I just want us to think about these things. -
One of the most important things to understand about man is his continual potential to sin. Because sin is in him, he will committ sin when the opportunity comes along. Therefore, man is NEVER, not for one second, righteous in himself. -
3. How do we account for cruelty and persecutions against the church over the years?
4. Plus, the text says Satan is bound so that he would not deceive the nations, not the church. -
I see no reason not to. I will assume you are not suggesting that I have not thought about it.
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