You can't prove that Westcott was a Christian.Originally posted by skanwmatos:
I don't know. Only God can see the heart. However, based on what he believed he may not have been, but I don't know.
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You can't prove that Westcott was a Christian.Originally posted by skanwmatos:
I don't know. Only God can see the heart. However, based on what he believed he may not have been, but I don't know.
You can't prove that Westcott was a Christian. </font>[/QUOTE]Can you prove that even half of the KJV1611 translators were Christians? Can we see the proof?Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by skanwmatos:
I don't know. Only God can see the heart. However, based on what he believed he may not have been, but I don't know.
Do you deny that God inpired His Word in the autographs? Do you deny that God preserve His inspired Word in the apographs?Originally posted by skanwmatos:
1. Where was the word of God prior to 1611?
Will K. and I agree that it was singular, but you said plural.What Hebrew word is translated "heaven" in Genesis 1:1 in the KJV and is the Hebrew singular, dual, or plural?
I answered it in other post. Skan, you and I disagreed with that.If the NKJV is wrong to not translate "logos" in Matthew 5:37 is the KJV equally wrong for not translating "logos" in Hebrews 5:11?
If not Beza text, what Greek Text did the NKJV follow?From which Greek text is the NKJV New Testament text translated?
Click here: WAS THE 1611 KING JAMES BIBLE DIFFERENT FROM THOSE WE HAVE TODAY?If the KJV has not been changed since 1611, other than to correct printer's errors and typos, why does Genesis 8:13 read "one" in the 1611 and "first" in the 1769?
Or change "fourescore yeere" to "eightieth year?" Or change "God" to "LORD" in 2 Chronicles 28:11?Or "children" to "men" in Ezra 2:22?
Or "God" to "LORD" in Isaiah 49:13?
Or change "amongst" to "among" 36 times?
Or "Apollo" to "Apollos" twice?
Or "lift" to "lifted" 50 times?
And "helps in governments" to "helps, governments" in 1 Corinthians 12:28?
And "the Lord" to "his Lord" in John 15:20?
Or "the Lord" to "our Lord" in 2 Thess 2:14?
Originally posted by Askjo:
Originally posted by skanwmatos:
1. Where was the word of God prior to 1611?Do you deny that God inpired His Word in the autographs? Do you deny that God preserve His inspired Word in the apographs?
So are you saying as a KJVO that you are conceding to the idea that KJVO is a myth and that there were actually Bibles that preceded the KJV that God used?
That article was quite simplisitic. Howevere he did admit to changes in the KJV over the years though. So the original was not the preserved text as the KJVO's suggest.Originally posted by Askjo:
Click here: WAS THE 1611 KING JAMES BIBLE DIFFERENT FROM THOSE WE HAVE TODAY?
I researched on Westcott and Hort and learned that they were unbelievers. That is sad that they are in Hell now.Originally posted by David J:
You can not prove that Westcott was lost or if he was saved
That is good.I love the Lord.
Your choice!I use a NASB, KJV, KJ21,NIV,Geneva, and I reference a NKJV often.
The NKJV included non-TR -- 40%!!!I'm asking you to provide proof that the NKJV only contains the Word of God.
Did I say perfect?Which TR is perfect?
Or you will tremble at His word?Please respect the Word of God and stop posting links slandering the precious Word of my Lord Jesus Christ.
Respected? I do not think so. If respected, I did not see their testimony in regard of the Word of God.One thing that I admire about this board is that the Word of God is to be respected.
Not all of them.I do not fellowship with Ruckman, Riplinger,Gipp, and Waite because these people openly lie and slander the Word.
Reject 2 Cor. 2:17?According to the bible these people have been rebuked and they continue in thier lies and deceptions dividing the brethern; therefore we are not to fellowship with them BUT we are to warn the brethern about them.
Asking me REPEATEDLY. You missed my answers somewhere in this BB.So please post on this board your reasons in full context and show me where the NKJV changes doctrines.
I respect the Word of God and DEFEND IT!!!!If you will not do this then respect the Word of God and stop slandering it.
Miss my answer a while ago?Originally posted by robycop3:
Please answer this, Askjo: WHERE WAS THE WORD OF GOD IN ENGLISH BEFORE 1611?
THis site says:Originally posted by Askjo:
Click here: WAS THE 1611 KING JAMES BIBLE DIFFERENT FROM THOSE WE HAVE TODAY?
I have never made any claim one way or another. But if that is the criteria, I can prove you are a Christian either.Originally posted by Askjo:
You can't prove that Westcott was a Christian.
Do you deny that God inpired His Word in the autographs? Do you deny that God preserve His inspired Word in the apographs?</font>[/QUOTE]Askjo again refuses to answer the question.Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by skanwmatos:
1. Where was the word of God prior to 1611?
Will K. and I agree that it was singular, but you said plural.</font>[/QUOTE]Yes, you and Will are both wrong, which is understandable for neither one of you can read Hebrew. And it is a dual.</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> What Hebrew word is translated "heaven" in Genesis 1:1 in the KJV and is the Hebrew singular, dual, or plural?
I answered it in other post. Skan, you and I disagreed with that.?</font>[/QUOTE] You simply said "No." Would you care to try to defend that answer in view of the obvious double standard you have employed?</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> If the NKJV is wrong to not translate "logos" in Matthew 5:37 is the KJV equally wrong for not translating "logos" in Hebrews 5:11?
</font>[/QUOTE]The TR.From which Greek text is the NKJV New Testament text translated? </font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />If not Beza text, what Greek Text did the NKJV follow??
And once again Askjo refuses to answer the question.If the KJV has not been changed since 1611, other than to correct printer's errors and typos, why does Genesis 8:13 read "one" in the 1611 and "first" in the 1769?
Or change "fourescore yeere" to "eightieth year?" Or change "God" to "LORD" in 2 Chronicles 28:11?Or "children" to "men" in Ezra 2:22?
Or "God" to "LORD" in Isaiah 49:13?
Or change "amongst" to "among" 36 times?
Or "Apollo" to "Apollos" twice?
Or "lift" to "lifted" 50 times?
And "helps in governments" to "helps, governments" in 1 Corinthians 12:28?
And "the Lord" to "his Lord" in John 15:20?
Or "the Lord" to "our Lord" in 2 Thess 2:14?
Ditto, King James who commissioned and the Anglo-Catholic clergy and scholars who translated the AV.You can't prove that Westcott was a Christian.
I answered,Where was the word of God prior to 1611?
Skan said:Do you deny that God inpired His Word in the autographs? Do you deny that God preserve His inspired Word in the apographs?
You denied the autographs and the apographs were there before 1611.Askjo again refuses to answer the question.
I answered,From which Greek text is the NKJV New Testament text translated?
Skan said,If not Beza text, what Greek Text did the NKJV follow??
Which TR?The TR.
Skan said:If the KJV has not been changed since 1611, other than to correct printer's errors and typos, why does Genesis 8:13 read "one" in the 1611 and "first" in the 1769? Or change "fourescore yeere" to "eightieth year?" Or change "God" to "LORD" in 2 Chronicles 28:11?Or "children" to "men" in Ezra 2:22?
Or "God" to "LORD" in Isaiah 49:13?
Or change "amongst" to "among" 36 times?
Or "Apollo" to "Apollos" twice?
Or "lift" to "lifted" 50 times?
And "helps in governments" to "helps, governments" in 1 Corinthians 12:28?
And "the Lord" to "his Lord" in John 15:20?
Or "the Lord" to "our Lord" in 2 Thess 2:14?
I already answered it, but you rejected it.And once again Askjo refuses to answer the question.