Regarding John 3:16, which do you prefer?

Did you just cut and paste my post and make it look like yours?

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Should he had given you the credit then?

 

The BDAG is the 3rd edition and it prefers ...."μονογενὴς υἱός is used only of Jesus. The renderings only, unique may be quite adequate for all its occurrences here"

It notes others prefer "only begotten", but then adds, "in this case it would be analogous to πρωτότοκος (Ro 8:29; Col 1:15 al.)"

πρωτότοκος = "to having special status associated with a firstborn, firstborn" BDAG (Rom 8:29)

So what word proper emphasizes the special status better? "Only begotten" or "unique" /"only of His kind".

I will go with unique.

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Well it was my post 61 that was cut and pasted. Hahaha

I don't really care. I was just trying to have a little fun.

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they would seem to be allowing for both!

 

As are we all!

 

I am "only of kind" or "unique" preferred....not onlyism. Hahaha

However I do think the μονογενες is much better served with a rendering of "unique one". I have not ran across one example of Greek were "only begotten" is merited. I do not accept the Latin as an argument or conjecture from early church fathers. Describing Christ as "eternally begotten" lacks support from scripture.

The BDAG acknowledges the "only begotten" position but doesn't seem to endorse it.

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Most who do not like using only begotten seems to be seeing it denoting that Jesus was created, had a beginning, even though does not mean that!

 

Are you speaking of the approximately dozen prominent English Bible translation teams who don't use that term? They are New Testament and Old Testament scholars who are well respected and may know a thing or two more than you on this subject.

 

I never said that was not a viable way to translate it, just not the only way that we can!

 

Another article favoring “only begotten.”
The Only Begotten Son (ο μονογενης υιος)

 

VERY interesting, as his views seem to really support that as what would be the better translation on this Greek term into English!!

 

Blather.

 

What about post# 211?

 

The above is total bunk and an evil accusation. It's entirely unfounded. I had said that Old and New Testament scholars of a dozen or more versions certainly don't believe the rot of your assertion above. You have some colossal nerve to make such a wicked claim. I daresay you would be put in your place but quick to say the same thing to their faces.


Then, in post 210 of yours you tried to backtrack unsuccessfully :"I never said that was not a viable way to translate it, just not the only way we can." Pathetic.