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Should pastors be required to know original Biblical languages?

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by Yeshua1, Feb 11, 2020.

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  1. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    Seems that is the example you were using them for.
     
  2. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Pastors should be teachers of God's word. Trainging believers in the word. And all that may entail.
     
  3. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    Many pastors dont seem to know the difference between teacher and Seminary professor.
     
  4. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Yes. But merely doing just that, one can be on the wrong side of the fence, regarding the actual words from God.
     
  5. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    We do not have the originals, so any text used there would profit you!
     
  6. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    PROVE WITH VERSES.
     
  7. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    The Bible gives qualifications for pastors. Your idea is not in God's list.
     
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  8. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    You have a disconnect in understanding plain English. You need to start at the ground level, and that would be the NIrV.
     
  9. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    Cite your sources. Oops, that's an impossibility for you. Anyway, I don't believe that students of the past at Yale or Harvard were required to teach Latin and Greek.
     
  10. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    What? No Aramaic?
     
  11. Marooncat79

    Marooncat79 Well-Known Member
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    I know a ton of pastors who do not need to be pastoring and are so totally inept theologically that they have nothing to teach anyone
     
  12. Marooncat79

    Marooncat79 Well-Known Member
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    When Harvard started you had to know them
     
  13. Ziggy

    Ziggy Well-Known Member
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    There were good reasons why to take Greek and Hebrew in seminary, one of which is to "thoroughly equip" the pastor to be able to combat outsiders or even those inside the church (as I have experienced!) who might claim certain false doctrines based on a supposed "exegesis" of the original languages.

    Case in point: the JW's misinterpretation of Jn 1:1 and how to refute their claim that no definite article in the final clause makes Jesus only "a god". How does the unequipped pastor really reply to such in a convincing manner?
     
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  14. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    The current NIV has been published for nine years. Your pastor could not possibly be unaware of its inclusive language. I doubt it caught him by surprise. If so, he isn't as educated as you claim. Is it, or is it not, his primary translation in the pulpit? Another question, does your church have a pew Bible? If so, what is it?
     
  15. Rippon2

    Rippon2 Well-Known Member

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    You're not following along. I told Y-1 that students back then of those two institutions were not required to teach those two languages. He made the claim and I asked for proof.
     
  16. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    All copies of documents come from originals. So are you arguing 0% of God's orginal words is left? You seem to think it makes no difference if any of it was changed.
     
  17. Rob_BW

    Rob_BW Well-Known Member
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    Oh, really?
     
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  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus spoke to his own Apostles, and that they would have the Holy Spirit enable them to remember and to record down all that was said to us, correct?
    John 14:26
     
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    ONLY in the world of the KJVO!
     
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Think it is, 2 Timothy 2:15
     
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