Did Paul, the apostle to the Gentiles, explain Christ's sacrifice in terms of the Law of Moses when preaching to Gentiles?
The Gospel to the Gentiles
Discussion in 'Free-For-All Archives' started by SolaScriptura in 2003, Jun 15, 2003.
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Do you not see that in Paul's letters?
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I didn't word my question right. What I really meant was: did he talk about it as if it were a legal sacrifice?
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Hebrews chapters 9 and 10 would seem to argue "yes".
In Christ,
Bob -
Hebrews 8:4-5 would seem to argue "no."
"For if he were on earth, he should not be a priest, seeing that there are priests that offer gifts according to the law: Who serve unto the example and shadow of heavenly things..."
[ June 17, 2003, 01:07 AM: Message edited by: SolaScriptura in 2003 ] -
Clint Kritzer Active MemberSite Supporter
Also, while Paul was the "Apostle to the Gentiles" he often began his ministry within a town by going to a synagogue first, see Acts 13 beginning with verse 14.
I believe, also, blindly without researching, that the references of Judaism in the Pauline Epistles are directed towards Jewish converts or Judaizers within the congregation. You will see in Romans 2:17 that Paul specifically addresses the Jewish recepients of his Letter apart from the Gentile members.
Paul did always preach that Christ came first to the Jews but the Law was unknown or alien to the Gentiles who were unfamiliar.
Interesting question, Sola. I hope to find time to explore the answer. -
Tradition has it that Paul wrote Hebrews.
Hebrews makes the clearest statement on the legal aspects of the atoning sacrifice of Christ.
In 1Cor 5 Paul makes a statement in full harmony with the Hebrews9-10 view that the sacrifices are in fact symbols of Christ when he says "Christ our Passover has been sacrificed".
The church at Corinth had gentile believers just as the church in Rome.
In Christ,
Bob