Ok, specifically regarding the 430 years in Galatians 3:17, present the argument how 430 years stated is true from Abraham to the Law.
How many years was it
from Abraham being 75 an the birth of Jacob just for starters.
I have had my say, let those who score debates go back to the beginning of this one, go through and evaluate the posts.
You are not sure of your position regarding the number of years of Acts 7:6 and you have indicated so.
I am sure. 430 minus the 30 not in bondage.
Acts 7:6 And God spake on this wise, That his seed should sojourn in a strange land; and that they should bring them into bondage, and entreat them evil four hundred years.
Not only that I gave you a site which deals with your problem, did you look into it?
There are several alternative views.
Yes, that is a viable explanation to the conundrum. But so are some other explanations. The one part of the prophecy that is Biblically verified, it was precisely the fourth generation that came out of Egyptian bondage.
16And in the fourth generation they shall come hither again; for the iniquity of the Amorite is not yet full.
Gen 15
My understanding is the 400 years begins when Isaac was mocked (Genesis 21:9).
What I want to understand from you is how you understand how may years from when Abrahm was 75 to
the giving of the Law.
And how you understand the Aposlles argumet being 430 from the promise given to Abraham to the Law (Galatians 3:17). The traditional date for the Exodus has been at about 1490 B.C. (1 Kings 6:1 at 480 years).
What date would that be when Abraham was born? When Abraham was 75 (Genesis 12:4-7).
And what holy scripture did I say was
a myth in that statment?
Or am I to udnerstand that you stricktly hold that the Hebrew text, Exodus 12:40 missing reference to being in the land of Canaan is the original reading?
That does not change the fact that I at no time said in anyway that what the Bible taught was myth.
Now you took it that way.
Two more facts:
1) Neither Genesis 15:13 or
Acts 7:6 says "Egypt."
2) Only
Exodus 12:40 mentions Egypt in conection with the 430 years.
Which the Greek LXX says in Exodus 12:40 to included being in Canaan too during that span of time.
It is purely interpretation that one would read only Egypt into the forementioned
400 years in Genesis 15:13 or Acts 7:6.
What is the "this" you refering to?
The whole point of this thread is it is an interpretation that "Israel was in Egypt 400 years" and I did call that interpretation a "myth" by reason that the written word of God is not explicit on that matter.
430 years from God giving Abraham the promise to the giving of the Law (Galatians 3:16-17).
And that
Exodus 12:40 has a known
variant reading, "in the land of Canaan."
Also Genesis 15:13 as well as Acts 7:6 does not explicitly say Egypt.
Now let us ask the question, How many years was from Genesis 12:4-7 to the giving of the Law in order for Israel to have been in bondage 400 years in Egypt?
Numbers 1:44 These are the ones who were numbered, whom Moses and Aaron numbered, with the leaders of Israel, twelve men, each one representing his father’s house. 45 So all who were numbered of the children of Israel, by their fathers’ houses, from twenty years old and above, all who were able to go to war in Israel— 46 all who were numbered were six hundred and three thousand five hundred and fifty.
This number is in line with a 400-year sojourn in Egypt. This Scripture shows the number of Israelis to have been at least 2 million. They couldn't possibly have made THAT number of people in only 200 years!
And again, its impossible for a group of 70 people to become a company of some 2 million, without absorbing people from anywhere else, in just 200 years.
First, just making this assertion does not
make it true.
Where do you get 2 million?
Step by step show the math.
Secondly, the assumption that
Israel was in Egypt 400 years, how many actual years from Abram, given age 75 (Genesis 12), to the giving of the Law (Exodus 12:40; Galatians 3:17)?
When was Abram(B.C.)?
Assuming 480 is the original number given as currently in our Hebrew copies of 1 Kings 6:1.
(LXX has 440. Which shows evidence of a problem)
Please at leasst pick one of these issues and give an explanation.