That is not the way I would interpret 2 Peter 1:19. I believe that what Peter is saying is: that despite his claim that the apostles were telling the truth, the fulfilled OT prophecies concerning the Messiah are stronger evidence than his own testimony (even as an 'earwitness'). And by the way, should I hear the audible voice of God, His words will not conflict with those in the Bible.
The real reason I am KJVO
Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by stilllearning, Dec 25, 2008.
Page 10 of 12
-
-
-
Jesus' testimony is true AND not true. Did you see THAT? -
What I find so interesting is that the very translators of the KJV felt it was of utmost importance to have a translation in the 'vulgar' language so that all men may understand the Word. They don't say "get a dictionary to understand the words". Here's what they DO say:
"Indeed without translation into the vulgar tongue, the unlearned are but like children at Jacob's well (which is deep) [John 4:11] without a bucket or something to draw with; or as that person mentioned by Isaiah, to whom when a sealed book was delivered, with this motion, "Read this, I pray thee," he was fain to make this answer, "I cannot, for it is sealed." [Isa 29:11]"
"But we desire that the Scripture may speak like itself, as in the language of Canaan, that it may be understood even of the very vulgar." -
-
-
John 8:17&18 (KJV) --
It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.
I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. -
Let's read chapter 5 in context:
What does verse 32 say in John 5? That there is another witness. That would validate Jesus' testimony about Himself because John was a second witness. But is that enough? No. Because we see in verse 37 that God Himself is a witness to Jesus. then finally there is in verse 39 the testimony of Scripture.
Now for chapter 8. Let's again look IN CONTEXT:
So, to explain the "contradiction", it is perspective. According to the law, one person's testimony is not valid - but Jesus went on to tell them that it is not just His testimony but also on John's, the Father's and the Scripture's. So according to the law, Jesus' testimony is not true. But according to the truth, there are witnesses, so it is true.
Clear as day to this unlearned mind. -
-
God even abases himself to an estate of lower degree to come where man is at and offers to reason together with man. Isaiah 1:18.
Still men are persistently making unsubstanciated works of their hands as to perfect the word of God to any reader while that has already been accomplished by the Spirit of God.:thumbsup:
-
-
Actually, despite your errant claim, neither the modern translations nor the KJVs contradict themselves here. This is a case of Jesus responding to two different situations at two different times. In your confused state it's easy to see how you would make this mistake, Askjo. -
-
-
-
I told you I was not a KJVO person, I simply like it better, and each version has their little glitches. I find sometimes a verse, is much better translated into modern english. But I still do not see the need to delete words, to get at the same meaning the long way around.
Now that's said there are MV's which I will not use, one being the NIV. Its at best is an ecumenical translation. and the RSV which goes off on terms of its own, I think they call it textual freedom to be idiomatic.
In Bible studies I use the NASB, and the KJV. I find the NASB to be of much better understanding in the OT, which is filled with much symbolic language. Probably understood 2000 years ago, but not so easy these days. -
http://www.ibs.org/niv/accuracy/NIV_AccuracyDefined.pdf -
Rbell: // And that is why you find no significant doctrinal differences between the KJV and modern faithful translations. //
Amen, Brother Rbell - Preach it !
Jesus’ testimony is true - John 8:14 NIV
("Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid")
Jesus’ testimony is not true - John 5:31 NIV (uses 'valid' not 'true')
So according to Bro. Askjo - the NIV has a doctrinal difference. (No doctrinal difference was suggested, specified, or indicated.)
Here is what the King James Version, 1611 Edition says:
Joh 8:14 (KJV1611 Edition):
Iesus answered, and said vnto them, Though I beare record of my selfe, yet my record is true: for I know whence I came, and whither I goe: but ye cannot tell whence I come, and whither I goe.
Joh 5:31 (KJV1611 Edition): If I beare witnesse of my selfe, my witnesse is not true.
The selfsame 'contradiction' exists in the KJVs as exists in the MVs!
John 5:31 tells a common human truth: a person who gives record (testimony, witness) of one's self needs to be checked out.
In John 8:14, Jesus says even though normally, a person who gives record (testimony, witness) of one's self needs to be checked out, He doesn't need to be.
BTW, Brother Askjo has been told this last year at:
http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=40172 -
-
Page 10 of 12