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The real reason I am KJVO

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by stilllearning, Dec 25, 2008.

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  1. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    ...and in the various KJVs as well. Check it out, Askjo, since you doubt truth.
     
  2. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Then check the same verses in the KJVs and you'll find exactly the same "contradiction."
     
  3. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    The only thing to figure out, Askjo, is that you're extremely confused.

    :laugh: :thumbs: :smilewinkgrin:
     
  4. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Please show me TWO words on these passages in the KJV.
     
  5. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    As has been pointed out already, Askjo, the same supposed contradiction is found in the KJVs. Go check your "facts" again. You're absolutely destroying any credibility you may have had.
     
  6. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    That won't help a bit. Askjo is confused, saying that Jesus' testimony is said to be both true and not true. Of course this false accusation was made without checking to see if the same "contradiction" is found in the KJVs - and it is! What Askjo refuses to recognize is that Jesus was responding to two different situations at two different times. He didn't contradict Himself at all, but Askjo just can't see that truth.
     
  7. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    You WRONGLY picked my post. It refers to modern versions, NOT the KJV. You did not read my previous post:
     
  8. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    I am not confused. Most defenders of modern versions are confused and blind.
     
  9. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Askjo is pointing out that the KJV uses two different terms - "bear witness/witness" and "bear record/record" whereas the other versions all use the same terms in the two passages - thus creating a "contradiction". He's saying that Christ's "witness" is not true but His "record" is - and that is not a contradiction where as the other versions use the same term in both verses thus...the problem.

    However then he has the same issue with the original Greek since it uses the same term in both passages. It is not a valid argument if GOD HIMSELF made sure that it was the same word in the language it was written by His breath.
     
  10. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Askjo, are you really that confused or are you just being obstinate even though you know you're wrong? Jesus responded to two different situations at two different times. He DIDN'T contradict Himself as you errantly insist. But if He had contradicted Himself, that same contradiction is found in the KJVs as well as in modern Bible translations. Askjo, I believe you're being deliberately argumentative and obstinate. You're trying to make an absolute untruth miraculously turn into truth. Well, no matter how you try to make it happen, this false accusation will never suddenly turn into truth. IMHO, you either seek to be obstinate or else you have a severe comprehension problem.
     
  11. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    My post above refers to WHAT modern versions said. See????
     
  12. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    You see red above. The KJV shows that Christ did not contradict Himself.

    KJV - If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.
    KJV - Though I bear record of myself, yet my record is true

    Perfect! No contradiction with the doctrine of Jesus Christ!!!

    Modern versions show that Christ contradicted Himself on these passages. Therefore they affected the doctrine of Jesus Christ.
     
  13. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    So you are saying that the Greek - the very words that God breathed out - contradict themselves? So the KJV is superior to what God had actually written in the originals? That is not what I'm understanding. It is the same word in both passages in the Greek. The modern versions are more consistent with the manuscripts than the KJV is.
     
  14. ray Marshall

    ray Marshall New Member

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    Oops, I quoited the Jw. It saiy that, "JESUS gave away to tears." sorry
     
  15. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Did I say that? It is your false question.
    Did I say that? It is your false question.
    The KJV translators were wise to select a right word during they translated from Greek to English.
    Wrong! It is your false comment.
     
  16. ray Marshall

    ray Marshall New Member

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    Well, I believe everyone that CHRIST died for before the KJV1600 will be with him without execption. He died for his people way, way, way, back.
     
  17. rbell

    rbell Active Member

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    It doesn't matter how slowly they read it; you will never be satisfied, because they are reading in context, and you are not.
     
  18. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Jesus said that He bore "witness of myself" in the KJV. He does not need to explicitly state here that His witness "is true". So, unless you think He was actually lying here, this supplies the same 'contradiction' with 5:31. Would it help you understand if I drew you a picture?
     
    #218 franklinmonroe, Dec 27, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 27, 2008
  19. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    What I find very interesting is that I'm looking at John 5:31 on this site:

    http://scripturetext.com/john/5-31.htm

    and it's showing that the Wescott and Hort and the TR are identical on this verse. So there's no textual issues here that can be blamed on corrupted texts.


    Looking at the John 8:14 passage, there is a small change in there - don't know what it means. Can anyone read Greek and tell me what that last character that looks like a lower case n is? What does that change between the TR and the W&H?

    http://scripturetext.com/john/8-14.htm
     
  20. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus Well-Known Member
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    This is like talking to a four year old...that wall is there you can't run into...no the wall isn't there...that wall is there you can't run into...no the wall isn't there, watch...boom...see the wall is there...no the wall isn't there...
     
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