Where is the Bible?

No spoken words "exist". They have no substance. Written records exist. With modern technology sounds can be recorded.

You should have read to the end of the chapter (Jeremiah 36:32, KJV)--

Then took Jeremiah another roll, and gave it to Baruch the scribe, the son of Neriah; who wrote therein from the mouth of Jeremiah all the words of the book which Jehoiakim king of Judah had burned in the fire: and there were added besides unto them many like words. ​

So, clearly the second scroll had additions; it was not a exact copy. It was a whole new work; an original.

 

Let's not forget use of the word "Easter" in Acts 12:4

 

You should be ashamed of yourself. You have no credibility Mr. Mitchell.

 

The AV1611 itself does much to quash many of the KJVOs' arguments, such as the marginal note for Isaiah 14:12 you mentioned, the marginal note for the 2nd them in Psalm 12:7, which cancels the KJVOs "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie", and the preface "To The Reader", which, along with the translators' marginal notes, are left outta almost all current KJV editions.(Mosta their jive came straight outta Dr. Wilkinson's book.)

I gotta chuckle every time I see a KJVO's handle with "1611" or "AV1611" in it, as I doubt if that person has ever read the AV1611 at all, judging from what they post. And sorry, but the later KJV editions are NOT the AV1611!

 

Lemme setcha straight on a few facts, BYP. First, no one in the Vatican wrote vaticanus. They acquired it C. 1438-1445. it was already ancient then.
Next, St. Catherine's Monastery, where Sinaiticus was discovered, is GREEK ORTHODOX, not RC.
Next, there's NO SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT FOR KJVO, not even in the KJV itself. How, then, can you justify it, with NOTHING FROM GOD endorsing it ? ?

 

I'm dying to have a KJVOist tell me where in the Spanish Reina-Valera or German Huffnung translations I can find scriptural support for KJVOism.

 

annsi, when Revmitchell referred to "going to the woods" I don't think he was talking about using the NIV to read and study.

 

What in the world does anyone think I meant? Or do I want to know?

 

Doesn't matter at this point, since the original comment was edited out by a moderator. We should drop it and move on.

 

No I need to get that straitened out. I don't know how it was taken but I don't want to leave that lingering out there considering the responses.


[snipped]


Mod note: Thank you for clarifying, this kind of disparaging remark is not permitted about any translation of the Bible.

 

We do not go around in circles. We put forth arguments that are left unanswered by you. You claim there are no mistakes in the KJV. I have already given you one. You have failed to answer it. Let me refresh your memory.

1. Romans 6:2 "God forbid" Neither God or forbid are in the Greek text.
2. Acts 12:4 The word "Easter" is a mistranslation. It is the only place in the entire NT where the Greek word "pascha" is not translated passover. It is a wrong translation. "Pascha" always means passover.
3. The Hebrew word "rheem" means wild ox or possibly "wild goat." It does not mean unicorn, as the KJV translates. The Word of God does not dabble in Greek mythology. This is a wrong translation.
4. Phil.3:20 uses the word "our 'conversation' is in heaven. The statement is false because of a wrong translation. Our conversation (usually meaning behaviour) is not in heaven; it is on earth. The word in this verse means citizenship. The translators of the KJV butchered the verse here as well. One would never get that meaning out of this verse unless they had the help of the Greek or another translation.

You talk of mistakes. There are just four of them. I could cite many more. But that ought to be enough. There are many meanings that are lost when going from one translation to another. What did it mean when Jesus said "it is easier for a camel to through the eye of a needle..." Remember: they didn't have stainless steel sewing needles back in that age.
Meaning is lost in translation.

 

Did not know that. But nothing I said was "disgusting".

 

Fair enough. I will vouch for that.

 

RevMitchell & DHK, there's another very obvious goof in the KJV at 1 Timothy 6:10. The love of money is NOT *THE* root of ALL evil.

We have discussed this ad nauseam, & I'm not trying to start that discussion over. But, RevMitchell, I would ask you to consider the Greek rendering of that verse, as well as reality, to see that the CORRECT rendering - "the love of money is a root of all sorts of evil" - is quite in line with the Greek.

And also, there's no Scriptural support for KJVO, so how can a Bible-believing Baptist dare believe a doctrine of worship found nowhere in Scripture, but made entirely by MEN?