Which of these renderings is the perfect rendering?

Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted fourtie dayes, and fourtie nights, he was afterward hungrie. (Geneva Bible)

Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, afterwards he was hungry. (Douay-Rheims Bible)

Mat 4:2 And when hee had fasted forty dayes and forty nights, hee was afterward an hungred. (KJV)
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungered. (KJV)
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward a hungered. (KJV)
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. (KJV)
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward ahungered. (KJV)

We find here seven different renderings of the last phrase in Matt. 4:2, five of them in the KJV:

hee was afterward an hungred.
he was afterward an hungered.
he was afterward a hungered.
he was afterward an hungred.
he was afterward ahungered.


Question 1: Which of these renderings is the perfect rendering of Matt. 4:2?

Question 2: What is the difference in meaning between the KJV, and the Geneva Bible and the Douay-Rheims Bible?

 

Awwwwpuhleeeze! How many angels dance on the head of a pin?

 

Here is the perfect rendering in the
language we use in the early 21st century:

Matthew 4:2 (HCSB = The Holman Christian Standard Bible)

And after He had fasted 40 days
and 40 nights, He was hungry.

 

A little bit of searching and i find:

bartleby.com
The King James Version 2000
Matthew 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights,
he was afterward ahungered.

christnotes.org
The King James Version
Matthew 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights,
he was afterward an hungred.

servantofjesuschrist.com
quoted St. Matthew 4:2:
And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights,
he was afterward a hungered.
(my paper KJV1873 reads like this)

Crosswalk.com
The King James Version (Authorized)
Matthew 4:2
And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights,
he was afterward an hungred.
(My Grandmother's Bible is like this.
From the title page: New York: American Bible
Society, 1851.)

 

Amen.

 

Very real issue. SOME believe only ONE translation is correct and all others must, of necessity, be incorrect. </font>[/QUOTE]That was my point, but I was being a little sarcastic. The original post has a question that would cause the typical KJVO to wrap his/her head in duct tape just to keep their head from exploding! :eek:

 

Ed,

We find here in the Holman Christian Standard Bible one of its many imperfections :( . The Greek verb επεινασεν is not in the imperfect tense, but it is an active aorist indicative.

The NASB gives us a more precise translation, “He then became hungry,” but some people find the NASB too difficult to read. :D :D :D