JesusFan
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Also known errors in the various TR texts also
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From mss copies, on what basis do you typically accept one reading over another as the Original reading?
JesusFan
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The Kjvo seemed to be very reluctant to use the same standards and measures that they apply towards the translations
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How do you understand a known error in the TR is recognized?
JesusFan
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The older the manuscripts, the variants that seem to have a "harder" way of stating, like most likely not changed or corrupted, and also as a good attestment to it in historical textual evidences
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Servant of Lord Jesus said:
↑
The older the manuscripts, the variants that seem to have a "harder" way of stating, like most likely not changed or corrupted, and also as a good attestment to it in historical textual evidences
Click to expand...
So inerrance is not part of the Biblical standard?
JesusFan
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Are there any error or mistakes in it?
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In the TR, I believe so.
There are different TR edtions for that matter, they all cannot be correct.
Reynolds
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There is KJV highly preferred and KJV only. Most KJV only base their belief on handed down lore and not fact. I like the KJV. I have converted my KJV highly preferred Pastor to LSB. I simply pointed out to him that he had no clue what Elizabethan words and phrases mean and because of that he made a lot of errors. He agreed.
JesusFan
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I hold to the same view as held here
https://www.etsjets.org/files/documents/Chicago_Statement.pdf
Only the originals were inspired and perfect, with out any errors or mistakes in them
JesusFan
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Think same can be said of the Critical and majority texts also
JesusFan
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JesusFan
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Servant of Lord Jesus said:
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The older the manuscripts, the variants that seem to have a "harder" way of stating, like most likely not changed or corrupted, and also as a good attestment to it in historical textual evidences
Click to expand...
The LSB has for John 13:2 , And during supper, the devil having already put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, the son of Simon, to betray Him, . . .
Which is neither the oldest reading (P66) nor the most difficult reading, see John 13:4 and John 13:26 .
The harder reading being "supper being ended. "
JesusFan
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Some Greek texts are closer to what the originals were, but still think that one can use and have confidence in CT/MT/Bzt/TR Greek texts
JesusFan
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The LSB has for
John 13:2 , And
during supper, the devil having already put into the heart of Judas Iscariot,
the son of Simon, to betray Him, . . .
Which is neither the oldest reading (P66) nor the most difficult reading, see
John 13:4 and
John 13:26 .
The harder reading being "supper
being ended. "
Click to expand...
Which could be a passage where might be preferred to have gone other route
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Personally I do not think so.
Judas was at the institution of the remembrance, which in my understanding was done at the end of the supper, Luke 22:19-21 .
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Which would mean that a contradictory textual error would never be the inerrant word of God.
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Which goes back to the question of choosing the best textual reading.
On what basis? Of course it is by each variant reading.
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Both use the same Greek texts.
Tbe JW Bible, John 1:18 ,
No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him.
The LSB, John 1:18 ,
No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him .