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Why would I be hypocritical?? I have no particular allegiance to the NIV. I don't know that "crass" is the word that should be used for it however. It's language is not slang, as the KJV is. Incidentally, the NIV is the only version of the three I have up (KJV, NASB, NIV) that actually communicated what appears to be the point of the verse. "Flesh like a donkey" does not exactly communicate what seems to be the point. In fact, when I first read it, I was wondering how her lovers had flesh like a donkey. Not until I read the NIV did I know what it was referring to.Originally posted by Faith, Fact & Feeling:
Maybe you would prefer the NIV in Ezekiel 23:20 for good preaching text. I guess since they're not outdated based on your definition, they must just be up-to-date, but crass. Talk about making a plumber blush, this verse in the NIV will do it. Now are you going to be hypocritical about this Larry, or are going to condemn both? Is this language acceptable to you Larry, and the KJB is not?
Did you read what I said? I will quote it to save you the trouble: Having said that, I would certainly try for a better way to communicate it though I would have to give is some thought. It is the most clear translation; it could perhaps be done in a better way.Originally posted by Faith, Fact & Feeling:
Certainly you would not condemn the KJB so strongly in 1 Samuel 25 and then not condemn the NIV in Ezekiel 23 would you?
The NIV is a proper translation of what the text says; I have no bias against the KJV so I can't demonstrate that for you.Are you now going to condemn the NIV for doing the same in Ezekiel, or are you going to further demonstrate your bias against the KJB?
Are you going to stop beating your wife? (IMPLICATION: I never started so I can't continue.)Are you now going to continue justifying yourself?
The question was not about the NIV. I don't preach from the NIV. I will continue to read the NIV, just as I continue to read the KJV. What's there to change?You even went as far as to say “I would be using another version ... for good” over this issue. Are you going to follow your own advice and quite using the NIV?
Exactly! Not only is the language crude, if you read it no one will know what it means!undignified (and confusing) language.
But this is like saying, "so what, other versions are bad too" which is an admission on your part that this passage is "bad". Unfortunately, the KJVO position is an unnecessary straitjacket which traps you with translations that are, in various places, crude, unclear, inaccurate, or confusing. I can't understand how someone who approaches this issue with an open mind could remain KJVOnly.Maybe you would prefer the NIV in Ezekiel 23:20 for good preaching text. I guess since they're not outdated based on your definition, they must just be up-to-date, but crass. Talk about making a plumber blush, this verse in the NIV will do it.
WHAT?!?BTW, very clever title ... If you intended it.
Istherenotacause, if it was OK for people in 1611 to go to the greek in their day and make a translation that was not "vulgar or offensive", why can't I have one today that is not vulgar or offensive? Why do you grant them a privelege and deny it to me?Those words in question are not "vulgar" or offensive in the original text according to that time,
So let me get this straight...you don't consider a slang term for urination vulgar? You can't even say it on public television. Do you use it in ordinary conversation? I doubt it. Reason is simple: words change meaning. We're not talking about a theological word. We're talking about a word that is now vulgar describing the process excess is discarded from the body. To equate theological words with body functions is ludicrous.Those words in question are not "vulgar" or offensive in the original text according to that time, and shouldn't be now. So are we going to let this ecumenical,everchanging, God-hating world dictate to the Church the Word of God as vulgar and offensive?
So let me get this straight...you don't consider a slang term for urination vulgar? You can't even say it on public television. Do you use it in ordinary conversation? I doubt it. Reason is simple: words change meaning. We're not talking about a theological word. We're talking about a word that is now vulgar describing the process excess is discarded from the body. To equate theological words with body functions is ludicrous.Originally posted by TomVols:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Those words in question are not "vulgar" or offensive in the original text according to that time, and shouldn't be now. So are we going to let this ecumenical,everchanging, God-hating world dictate to the Church the Word of God as vulgar and offensive?
Istherenotacause, if it was OK for people in 1611 to go to the greek in their day and make a translation that was not "vulgar or offensive", why can't I have one today that is not vulgar or offensive? Why do you grant them a privelege and deny it to me? </font>[/QUOTE]I didn't make it vulgar and offensive, the world in it's confusion has. So let me ask you, are you going to let this world dictate what is acceptable, allowing it to have dominion over knowledge, dictating what is truth contrary to what is established?Originally posted by swaimj:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Those words in question are not "vulgar" or offensive in the original text according to that time,