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Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by StephenUSAFVet, Apr 25, 2021.

  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Those into KJVO?
     
  2. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    Thank you

    That version- is that in French? Sounds like it could be JW ??
     
  3. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    You're welcome. Yes, French, and no, not JW, it's the main evangelical version of the French-speaking world.
    And they followed the Americans.
    Like I said, that verse is missing from a number of mainstream English versions too.
    The Arabic world is following suit. The same verse changes are happening to our Arabic Bible.
    Do you know how hard it is to reach Catholics and Muslims with the changes that have now become mainstream in most versions?
     
  4. StephenUSAFVet

    StephenUSAFVet New Member

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    Yes I have heard that before and it’s almost cult-like!
     
  5. StephenUSAFVet

    StephenUSAFVet New Member

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    I’m very excited to get my hands on it and study it when the full text is available.
     
  6. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    how good is your Greek grammar? If you are able to read this passage in the Greek text, then I will send you some grammitical problems with the passage, from verses 6-10, which the removal of The Three Heavenly Witnesses, causes. Put the Words back into the text, and problem solved!

    I can say that 100%, the internal evidence, which is far more important than any Greek manuscript, says that, "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one", IS the Original Writing of the Apostle John.
     
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  7. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    The issue to remember is that each are translations. W cannot expect less of Christians reading Scripture than we would of an individual reading a translated literary work. We have to remember these are translations and consider the process of translation.

    There is an issue of holding one translated verse over another because that verse, in a favored translation, emphasizes a biblical truth. Sometimes these truths, while valid, are being emphasized by the translator and not the text itself.

    One may, for example, look at a passage (Phil:2) in the KJV and the ESV, concluding the ESV is wrong because it does not emphasize the diety of Christ. BUT the verse in question is not about the deity of Christ. The ESV is accurate, as is the KJV.

    Another example is John 3:16. The HCSB offers a much more precise (to the Greek) than does the KJV (which can be interpreted as God loving the world "so much") The KJV is not wrong, but it takes study not to assume the passage is speaking of how much God loved the world rather than how God loved the world. Both translations are correct, but the HCSB (in this case) is closer to the meaning.

    The point is Scripture is not intended to be taken apart and studied piecemill.
     
  8. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    It would not be the same. Otherwise it would not be different. Luke 4:4.
     
  9. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Let us start a thread to make that case. Have you read Adam Clarke's essay on 1 John 5:7?
     
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  10. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    If more KJVOs would read the AV 1611's PREFACE...
     
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  11. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Let us start a thread to make that case. Have you read Adam Clarke's essay on 1 John 5:7-8?
     
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  12. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    This is a post-hoc rationalization.
     
  13. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    You both seem unaware that consciousness of inspiration is not necessary for inspiration.
    Paul repented of having written 1Corinthians at one point.
    Caiaphas prophesied unawares.
     
  14. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    It would seem we do not agree. It is nevertheless true a word can have shades of meaning that two translations would translate differently.
     
  15. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Likely, he only TRIED to defend the KJVO myth. He was likely trying to stop a train with his hands. The KJVO myth isn't found in the KJV itself, & its translators' preface shows even THEY weren't "KJVO".

    The KJV is just one English translation among many that came along at a good time when the British Empire was strong. It was good for its time, just as the Model T was the best car of its time, but, like the Mosel T, it's been replaced with newer, better versions. Just as Mr. Creedy in the Midas commercials stuck to his Model T, some people still like the KJV.

    The DIFFICULTY comes when one says the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible translation out there. This is patently-false, & is a man-made myth invented by Satan to cause problems.
     
  16. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Well, there's no evidence the AV makers were more-inspired than was Tyndale, Coverdale, or later makers of valid translations.
     
  17. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    No one said they were.
     
  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    The big problem is that there is very little textual evidence that can show that passage was valid, as even Eramus could not found any evidence for it to be included until his third Greek edition!
     
  19. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    No, it is not.

    One could argue, for example, that the HCSB denies God's great love because it interprets John 3:16 (correctky) to read "in this way" rather than "so".

    But that would be a foolish argument not because of John 3:16 but because the fact the HCSB affirms the great love of God.

    It would be foolish to insist the HCSB denies God's great love because of that passage.

    Likewise, it would be asinine to believe the ESV's interpretation of Phil. 2 denies the deity of Christ because the ESV repeatedly affirms Christ's deity (it does not have to read Christ's diety into every passage).
     
  20. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    True. And people can pick apart pices of the whole to make arguments.

    Which doctrines do you believe are present in the KJV but absent in the ESV (or vise versa)?
     
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