I understand that there is a difference between imperative and indicitive. However the Greek texts that I'm looking at both have indicitive. If it is indicitive the translator can not just arbitrarily translate it as an imperitive. Can he/she?
Before you spend all your energy laughing, tell me from Gal.6:5-10, how a passage that admonishes us to do good to our neighbor expecially our fellow believers, will earn us a place in a "Baptist Purgatory" this side of MK. I don't see the Scripture that you promised. But I sure chuckle a lot thinking about it.
You must have a different Bible. Shall I send you a copy of my Catholic Missal?
1. The texts you are looking cannot both have indicative by just looking at the Greek forms.
2. The form in Heb 12:7 can either be Indicative or Imperative.
If you have a text that parse, if the editors think it is Indicative then they will parse it that way.
3. But you cannot tell by just looking at the Greek Verb that it is Indicative, because they same form for the Indicative is the same for the Imperative.
Well first of all your emotional cries of purgatory are just that more "emotionalism."
Secondly just becuase we are admonised to do something doesn't mean we are going to do it. Of course if you follow the command and are faithful you will not reap corruption.
But the verse CLEARLY says that if you sow to the flesh (which is a REAL possibility though it is denied by some) then you ARE GOING to reap corruption.
That is a clear warning of what IS GOING TO HAPPEN if you don't do what it says. So all you are doing is taking the same Scripture that I pointed to and ignoring the front half because it proves you wrong in favor of the second half which doesn't prove your point, but you think it does.
We are one the same page now. But just in case let me see if I am reading you correctly. By the time I read the Greek text and it indicates present, active, indicitive, they have already decided it is indicitive, but the possibility exists that they misjudged. Correct?
But in reality if I was "smart" enough in the Greek language I would have to make that choice for myself. Correct?
1. You cannot read in the text that it is present active indicative, unless you have consulted some outside help who decides it is Present Active Indicative.
2. It is impossible to just look at the form and say it is Present Active Indicative without other helps.
3. Unless my judgment is incorrect, you must have used another source that says it is Present Active Indicative and not just be looking at the Greek Text.
It's funny again that you would mention "context" and then leave out these verses:
7 Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap. 8 For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting.
WHAT YOU SOW IS WHAT YOU REAP. This is talking about the JSOC which is soley based on the works you did on this earth. If you sow to the flesh which is a REAL possibility you ARE NOT going to reap life. You ARE going to reap corruption! Mark it down. This WILL happen!
You are reading into the passage something that is not there. I have posted verse after verse to show you the context. Not one verse speaks of either the JSOC or the MK. You are reading these things into that passage. In the first ten verses I posted four verses which directly relate to bearing one another's burdens. But you haven't posted one verse to support your position, not one verse that relates to the JSOC.
I must have some mercy on those involved in this debate, give them a rest, and close the thread. We are already on page 34. There are also similar threads running elsewhere.