Used in 1 Thessalonians ch5 and 2nd Thessalonians ch2.
I'm trying to learn something here. Are they referring to the same day? Why do you say so?
Day of Christ and Day of the Lord
Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Keith Mullins, Dec 2, 2021.
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Iconoclast Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
It spoke of judgment of cities or of nations -
Does Paul use a different reference for that day in 2 Thessalonians or is he referring to a different day?
Edited to add "in NT" -
Iconoclast Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord`s day, and I heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet Rev 1 -
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Iconoclast Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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Do you actually think John was saying "I was in the Spirit on a Sunday"? -
SavedByGrace Well-Known Member
Context in both cases speak of The Second Coming of The Lord Jesus Christ
The "Lord's Day" in Revelation 1:10, for example, is our Sunday, which is the First Day of the week, when Jesus Rose from the dead -
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I believe the "Day of the Lord" passages in 1 & 2 Thessalonians refer to the same event. They were written by the same author (Paul) to the same audience (Thessalonian church). In 1 Thessalonians, Paul warns them to be alert, and to keep their "spiritual armor" on. In verses 23-24, we see that Paul clearly expects them to witness the coming of Christ.
In 2 Thessalonians 2, Paul tells them not to be fooled into believing that the "Day of Christ" had already come. Why would this 1st Century church believe the Day of Christ was near if it was far off in the future? This would have only served to confuse them, just as many Christians are confused today about the Day of the Lord. The "falling away" and the "man of sin" came during the Jewish Wars (AD 66-70). Something was "now" (when Paul wrote the epistle) restraining the Day of Christ. The "restrainer" may have been the Roman civil government or even Claudius, who was emperor when this was written. The "man of sin" was possibly Nero. Whether it was him or not, it was probably someone the Thessalonians knew.
"Day of the Lord" (and similar expressions) are used throughout Scripture to describe any period where God exercises judgment on a people. Clearly, the 1st Century Church was expecting the "Day of the Lord" at any time. Paul even had to correct those who though this "day" had already come. -
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SavedByGrace Well-Known Member
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Second Coming, Return of Jesus Christ
I understand these to be the same day … which will arrive immediately after the period which is characterized as “like the days of Noah”
more later but i wanted to jump in here on the mo-Bile Dee-Vice for notifications -
NET Footnote concerning 1 Thessalonians 5:2:
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that is a great list of references in your Bible. NET … is it a particular study Bible? Thx -
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" But of the times and the seasons, brethren, ye have no need that I write unto you.
2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
3 For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape.
4 But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief." ( 1 Thessalonians 5:1-4 )
In the above I see that "the day of the Lord" spoken here, is the same as that spoken in Matthew 24:29-42, Mark 13:24-37, Luke 21:27-28, 2 Thessalonians 1:7-8 and many others...
The day of His coming again.
" Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and [by] our gathering together unto him,
2 that ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for [that day shall not come], except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
4 who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God." ( 2 Thessalonians 2:1-4 )
Same in the above. -
In both accounts they involve the fact that the Lord Jesus will come...
The first one tells us that He will come as a thief in the night but that we as believers know this perfectly well and that that day of sudden destruction will not overtake us as a thief.
The second one gives different detail and mentions both His coming again as well as the believers' gathering together to Him ( what's called the "rapture" or catching away, see Matthew 24:29-31, Mark 13:24-27, Luke 21:27-28, and 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 as examples ), and also tells us that there shall be a great falling away first and the man of sin / son of perdition ( damnation, also known as the "beast" or Anti-Christ of Revelation ) shall be revealed...
Sitting in the temple of God and attempting to shew that he is God ( the abomination of desolation, Daniel 9:27, Daniel 11:36-39, Matthew 24:15, Mark 13:14, Luke 21:20 ), speaking of the Anti-Christ which is yet to be revealed ( Revelation 13:1-8 ).
The Day of the Lord / the Day of Christ is the day that He comes...
Bringing with Him all of His saints as well as judgment upon those who do not know Him in the end of the days and of the kingdoms of this earth, before He takes over and rules all of them from Jerusalem for 1,000 years.
However,
I see that "the Lord's Day" referred to in Revelation 1:10 is known to us by many names, depending on what language or culture we come from....
In Spanish it is "Domingo", or "Lord's Day".
In French it is "Dimanche", same thing.
In English it is "Sunday" ( named after, of all things, the sun god ), and corresponds to the first day of the Hebrew 7 day week.
That is how I understand those terms and why, and I wish you well in your studies in His word.
May God bless you.
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