I noticed that in the ten most recent threads as of 11:28 p.m. MST that there seems to be a deviation from the rules of this forum. This deviation is primarily the fault of they who oppose "KJV-onlyism".
While this is not intended as a flame; I do have a simple question.
Dr.Bob in his KJVO definitions post states that folks should refer to the KJVO and #1-5 when refuting or discussing the doctrine.
I see this is not being done.
Can anybody remind me why this is not happening?
Just a curious ol' boy from the mountains.
In His service;
Jim
Following the moderators rules?
Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by av1611jim, Nov 5, 2004.
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Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member
To categorize the KJVO is not a posting rule in this forum. It is a helpful addition when describing a KJVO philosophy that you are trying to debate. If you'll notice, the thread entitled, Eleven Simple Rules for Posting, says nothing about ascribing a number to the KJVO belief you are confronting. That idea is presented in the thread entitled, Definitions of KJV Only.
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Most make a simpler distinction between
KJV is preferred
KJV is best
KJV is only
and it is evident in the post.
I only pick up stones when folks cross 4 to 5 . .