TrevorL,
Thank you for the civilness of your postings towards me, I truly appreciate it. There are many places where you can find the phrase 'wrath of God' in the NT.
Romans has it 4 times; 1:18, 2:5, 9:22, and 13:4.
Ephesians has it once, 5:6.
Colossians has it once, 3:6.
1 Thessalonians has it once, 2:16.
Revelation has it six times; 14:10, 14:19, 15:7, 16:1, 16:19, and 19:15.
Every instance where this phrase 'wrath of God' is found in the NT, it has to do with God's judgment toward sinners and their sins.
Look at the Colossians passage where Paul wrote Put to death, therefore, whatever belongs to your earthly nature: sexual immorality, impurity, lust, evil desires and greed, which is idolatry. Because of these, the wrath of God is coming.[vss 5,6] It is because of these works of the flesh, carnal lusts, that God's wrath will be poured out.
Then in Ephesians, Paul writes pretty close to the same thing he did to Colossae when he wrote But among you there must not be even a hint of sexual immorality, or of any kind of impurity, or of greed, because these are improper for God’s holy people. Nor should there be obscenity, foolish talk or coarse joking, which are out of place, but rather thanksgiving. For of this you can be sure: No immoral, impure or greedy person—such a person is an idolater—has any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God. Let no one deceive you with empty words, for because of such things God’s wrath comes on those who are disobedient. Therefore do not be partners with them.[5:3-7]
Then the six passages in Revelation all deal with God's judgment of sin by pouring out His wrath upon the disobedient.
God's dealing with His Son on the cross
Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by SovereignGrace, Sep 15, 2015.
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SovereignGrace Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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That opposed to that which would be added by those who ignore His statement "...it is finished."
The question I asked made about as much sense as yours:
Do you deny His Manhood was different from His Deity ?Click to expand...
Nothing he said warranted this question.
Further, His manhood did not negate His Deity, but rather...veiled it.
Hence my question, and I will pose it again...
...do you deny Christ in His manhood was God?
It would take that for your question to take on a semblance of relevance.
God bless. -
SovereignGrace said: ↑TrevorL,
Thank you for the civilness of your postings towards me, I truly appreciate it. There are many places where you can find the phrase 'wrath of God' in the NT.
Romans has it 4 times; 1:18, 2:5, 9:22, and 13:4.
Ephesians has it once, 5:6.
Colossians has it once, 3:6.
1 Thessalonians has it once, 2:16.
Revelation has it six times; 14:10, 14:19, 15:7, 16:1, 16:19, and 19:15.
Every instance where this phrase 'wrath of God' is found in the NT, it has to do with God's judgment toward sinners and their sins.
Look at the Colossians passage where Paul wrote Put to death, therefore, whatever belongs to your earthly nature: sexual immorality, impurity, lust, evil desires and greed, which is idolatry. Because of these, the wrath of God is coming.[vss 5,6] It is because of these works of the flesh, carnal lusts, that God's wrath will be poured out.
Then in Ephesians, Paul writes pretty close to the same thing he did to Colossae when he wrote But among you there must not be even a hint of sexual immorality, or of any kind of impurity, or of greed, because these are improper for God’s holy people. Nor should there be obscenity, foolish talk or coarse joking, which are out of place, but rather thanksgiving. For of this you can be sure: No immoral, impure or greedy person—such a person is an idolater—has any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God. Let no one deceive you with empty words, for because of such things God’s wrath comes on those who are disobedient. Therefore do not be partners with them.[5:3-7]
Then the six passages in Revelation all deal with God's judgment of sin by pouring out His wrath upon the disobedient.Click to expand...
God bless. -
Is it possible that, the wrath of God was poured out on his Son through, the death, the Son shedding his blood and according to mercy and for the grace of God, the Father raised his Son from the death; Thereby the regenerated Son became the righteousness of God, apart from the law.
It was the belief (faith) of the Father that the Son would be obedient unto the death (shedding his blood) thereby the Father, had placed before, the Son, propitiation (the place of mercy from wrath).
After all it is stated that even though Jesus was Son, he learned obedience through sufferings. Heb 5:8 It is stated, he became obedient unto death. Phil 2:8
It was the belief of the Father that the Son born of woman would do so and thereby had made the Son, propitiation, from the wrath of God.
I actually believe the Son took the wrath of the Father upon himself and became the appeasement for the wrath, rather than the Father pouring out his wrath upon the Son. If anything the wrath was poured upon him by having him born of woman, born under the law. -
Darrell C said: ↑Actually, I am the one arguing that Christ's death...alone...was the finished work of Christ.
That opposed to that which would be added by those who ignore His statement "...it is finished."
The question I asked made about as much sense as yours:
Nothing he said warranted this question.
Further, His manhood did not negate His Deity, but rather...veiled it.
Hence my question, and I will pose it again...
...do you deny Christ in His manhood was God?
It would take that for your question to take on a semblance of relevance.
God bless.Click to expand... -
savedbymercy said: ↑Did Christ death alone save them He died for?Click to expand...
Joh 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. -
DHK said: ↑Joh 20:30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
Joh 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.Click to expand... -
savedbymercy said: ↑Answer the question ! Did Christ's Death alone save all for whom He died ? If you say no, then you are saying His Death was not efficacious in and of itself, which is Blasphemy, so answer the question please !Click to expand...
1Jn 5:12 He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life.
1Jn 5:13 These things have I written unto you that believe on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that ye have eternal life, and that ye may believe on the name of the Son of God.
Your position:
1Jn 5:10 he that believeth not God hath made him a liar; because he believeth not the record that God gave of his Son.
1Jn 5:11 And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son.
1Jn 5:12 He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life.
The record:
Joh 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life. -
DHK said: ↑My position:
1Jn 5:12 He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life.
1Jn 5:13 These things have I written unto you that believe on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that ye have eternal life, and that ye may believe on the name of the Son of God.
Your position:
1Jn 5:10 he that believeth not God hath made him a liar; because he believeth not the record that God gave of his Son.
1Jn 5:11 And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son.
1Jn 5:12 He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life.
The record:
Joh 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.Click to expand... -
savedbymercy said: ↑Answer the question ! Did Christ's Death alone save all for whom He died ? If you say no, then you are saying His Death was not efficacious in and of itself, which is Blasphemy, so answer the question please !Click to expand...
It is efficacious only to them that believe.
This is the biblical teaching and the teaching expressed in that well known scripture of John 3:16. -
DHK said: ↑Christ's death was sufficient to save all men for all generations.
It is efficacious only to them that believe.
This is the biblical teaching and the teaching expressed in that well known scripture of John 3:16.Click to expand...
Christ's death was efficacious towards unbelievers, because it reconciled them to God while being enemies Rom 5:10 !
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