The great Mystery is that while upon the Cross, enduring the very judgement and wrath of god due towards sinners, Jesus Chrsit as that sin bearer really did deserve what he received from the father, for he took what was due to us!
Just how does the wrath of god be appeased if no penal Substitution?
Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Yeshua1, Jan 29, 2020.
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Since we are chosen for salvation on the basis of God crediting our faith as righteousness, it is impossible to be saved before our faith has been credited as righteousness. Romans 4:4-5, Romans 4:23-24, Romans 5:2, 2 Thessalonians 2:13. -
For this finds grace, if for the sake of conscience toward God a person bears up under sorrows when suffering unjustly. For what credit is there if, when you sin and are harshly treated, you endure it with patience? But if when you do what is right and suffer for it you patiently endure it, this finds grace with God.
21 For you have been called for this purpose, since Christ also suffered for you, leaving you an example for you to follow in His steps, 22 who committed no sin, nor was any deceit found in His mouth; 23 and while being reviled, He did not revile in return; while suffering, He uttered no threats, but kept entrusting Himself to Him who judges righteously; 24 and He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed. -
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Martin Marprelate Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
'It is wicked and cruel to hand an innocent man over to suffering and death if it is against his will. Nor did God the Father so treat Christ in whom He inspired the will to suffer for us. God's severity is thus manifested; He was unwilling to remit sin without punishment, as the Apostle intimates when he says, He did not spare even His own Son. But it also illustrates God's goodness, for as man was unable to make sufficient satisfaction through any punishment he himself might suffer, God have him One who would satisfy for him.. Paul stresses this, saying, He has delivered Him for us all, and,God has established Him [Christ] as a propitiation by His blood through faith.'
[Summa Theologiae, vol. 54, 3a, quest. 47, art. 30. Emphases in original]
And one from Luther:
''Wherefore Christ was not only crucified and died, but sin also (through the love of the divine Majesty) was laid on Him. When sin was laid on Him, then cometh the law and saith, "Every sinner must die." Therefore, O Christ, if Thou will answer, become guilty, and suffer punishment for sinners, thou must also bear sin and malediction. Paul therefore doth very well allege this general sentence out of Moses, as concerning Christ: "Cursed is everyone that hangeth on a tree." But Christ hath hanged on a tree, therefore Christ was accursed of God.'
[Commentary on Galatians 3:13]
And here's one from John Stott which I quote from memory: 'We must never suppose that on the cross the Father inflicted upon the Son a penalty that He was unwilling to bear. Nor must we suppose that the Son extracted from the Father a mercy that He was unwilling to bestow. At the cross, both Father and Son worked in perfect harmony for the salvation of Mankind.'
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Regarding Isaiah 53, I have already pointed out on this thread that the logic of the text contradicts penal substitution. On penal substitution, it would read "by his wounding we avoid being wounded" but what the text actually says is "by his wounds we are healed." By his death the dead are brought back to life. And it is clear from the immediate context of Isaiah 53 and from the longest NT commentary on Isaiah 53, 1 Peter 2:19-25, that the suffering of the Servant is unjust.
And Galatians 3 I have also responded to on this thread already. Jesus suffers the curse along with Israel (not as Israel's substitute) and he suffers it unjustly, so that the curse would be reversed by his resurrection. -
And John Stott has one of the most confused statements on this idea. On page 270 of The Cross of Christ he says that Jesus “paid sin’s wage” on our behalf. Anyone who has ever had a job knows this makes no sense. Wages are not something that we pay; wages are something we earn. Owing and earning are opposite sides of the economic metaphor. Thus, we do not owe death to God. We earn death for our sin. And we all justly receive the death we have earned when we suffer our sin’s consequences in this life and finally when we physically die. Our suffering and physical death is not a payment to God for our sin, and does not atone for our sin. Our atonement is in this: Jesus has voluntarily interceded to receive the wages of our sin along with us by suffering and dying on the cross. But he, being without sin and having paid our debt of obedience, has received these wages undeservedly and unjustly. Justice therefore demands that these wages be taken back, and that Jesus’ suffering and death be undone, reversed. Hence, Jesus’ resurrection. Jesus application of His death and resurrection to us through the Holy Spirit is our atonement. -
Noah Hirsch Active Member
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Penal Substitutionary Atonement (PSA) is simply a Trojan Horse for Calvinism's view of Limited Atonement.
Salvation occurs when an individual "receives" the reconciliation provided by Christ's substitutionary sacrifice on the cross. An individual "receives" the reconciliation when God transfers the individual spiritually into Christ. Not in Christ, not saved, in Christ saved. The basis of God choosing an individual and transferring them into Christ is God crediting the individual's faith in Christ as righteousness.
I asked one poster what "atonement" means and got several paragraphs, but biblically the idea is reconciliation to God. Not reconciled, not in Christ. Reconciled in Christ. Reconciliation occurs when an individual is transferred into Christ where they are justified, forgiven, and saved from God's wrath. Christ is our propitiation, thus in Christ is to be inside the propitiatory shelter of Christ. Not in Christ, the wrath of God abides on the individual. -
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