Looks like the translators of the ESV goofed on this one. Where is the word that is translated offended in the first part of the sentence? They left an entire word out that is critical to the point of the verse?
kjv against the rest. Is it as bad I as I am led to believe?
Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by WITBOTL, Oct 17, 2009.
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So, by your own definition, and in accordance with your own qualifications, the Reina-Valera, not the KJV, is the only Word of God. -
Also...
Who was the oppressors of ancient Israel, Mr. KJV?
Isaiah 3:12-13 (KJV): "As for my people, children are their oppressors, and women rule over them. O my people, they which lead thee cause thee to err, and destroy the way of thy paths."
Children and Women? Hmm...
From the Septuagint...
Isaiah 3:12-13 (LXX): "O my people, your extractors strip you, and extortioners rule over you: O my people, they that pronounce you blessed lead you astray, and pervert the path of your feet."
In the Septuagint, it is the priests, the religious leaders, who were leading people astray. Wonder why the Anglican translators might want to cover that up... -
Oh! I didn't realize you were a Catholic. That would have been helpful knowledge. We don't need to engage in the Bible version issue then, as your error runs much deeper.
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So, basically, my answer remains the same. By the way, there is a bit of a leap of faith with regards to the Septuagint as apparently there are no extant copies before about the 3rd century and even those are incomplete and disagree greatly with each other. -
Firstly, we can reconstruct nearly the entire Septuagint just from the writings of the early church fathers.
Secondly, to say it is a "leap of logic", and then claim that Jesus quoted the Hebrew scriptures, but "changed" it, so that it just mirrored the LXX, is truly the epitomy of covering your ears and shouting "uh-uh".
Thirdly, even the Earliest manuscripts that we have in the Hebrew, do not match the Masoretic text. We have preserved 1st century copies of the Hebrew text: they are mostly in agreement with the LXX.
Fourthly, why would you accept the word of a bunch of Christ hating Jews (Masoretes), over the testimony of Christ and his apostles?
Fifthly, Jesus could add words to Scripture if he desired: but what of the Anglican translators of the KJV? They are not Jesus: why did they add so many words (Many of which completely change the meaning of the verse) which were NOT in the underlying Manuscripts? Who gave them that authority? Certainly not God. -
Albert Barnes commenting on the example you provided above, Proverbs 18:19:
"The meaning of the first clause is obtained in the King James Version by the insertion of the words in italics, and it seems on the whole to be the best. The Septuagint and Vulgate give an entirely different rendering, based, apparently, upon a different text."
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Check here:
http://baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=1467971&postcount=1
http://baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=1468047&postcount=3 -
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