The scriptures tell us, that a believer should remain married to an unbeliever, because the believer may influence the unbelieving spouse to become a believer.
What about Romans 1:28? If the unbeliever is also ungodly, and we are to separate ourselves from the ungodly/unrighteous, does the above, still apply? If God 'turns a person over to a reprobate mind' (no further chance for salvation), then does it not stand to reason, that this person becomes 'spiritually dead'? Why would God demand that we remain married to someone that He has now separated from Himself?
Is it possible, that 'death' in the above example, means either carnal or spiritual death?
When I interpret Romans 1:26-28, I first look at the 'why' reasoning behind the scriptures. God created man and woman, and blessed His creations. Every oriface of the human body, was blessed. The use of these orifaces for any purpose other than those which God Himself blessed, defiles the human body. Homosexualism, is only one of these. Oral sex, sex toys, etc., also defiles the human body. If a person does not stop carrying out these acts, then I believe God 'discards' this person. At this time, the person becomes a true 'zhombie'....carnally alive, but spiritually dead.
This leaves the question, "Does the believing partner, now have the right to re-marry?" :jesus:
Married until carnal death.
Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Thorwald, Dec 18, 2011.
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So you think having a reprobabe mind means no further chance of salvation.
Hey, Calvinists! He's one of yours! -
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Thorwald said: ↑The scriptures tell us, that a believer should remain married to an unbeliever, because the believer may influence the unbelieving spouse to become a believer.Click to expand...
1Cr 7:12 But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.
13 And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.
14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such [cases]: but God hath called us to peace.
16 For what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save [thy] husband? or how knowest thou, O man, whether thou shalt save [thy] wife?
The scriptures also says not to marry an unbeliever in the first place (2 Corinthians 6:14-16)
What about Romans 1:28? If the unbeliever is also ungodly, and we are to separate ourselves from the ungodly/unrighteous, does the above, still apply? If God 'turns a person over to a reprobate mind' (no further chance for salvation), then does it not stand to reason, that this person becomes 'spiritually dead'? Why would God demand that we remain married to someone that He has now separated from Himself?Click to expand...
Mat 5:30 And if thy right hand offend thee, cut it off, and cast [it] from thee: for it is profitable for thee that one of thy members should perish, and not [that] thy whole body should be cast into hell.
Note that the verses immediately before and after this verse are about adultery and divorce.
When I interpret Romans 1:26-28, I first look at the 'why' reasoning behind the scriptures. God created man and woman, and blessed His creations. Every oriface of the human body, was blessed. The use of these orifaces for any purpose other than those which God Himself blessed, defiles the human body. Homosexualism, is only one of these. Oral sex, sex toys, etc., also defiles the human body. If a person does not stop carrying out these acts, then I believe God 'discards' this person. At this time, the person becomes a true 'zhombie'....carnally alive, but spiritually dead.
This leaves the question, "Does the believing partner, now have the right to re-marry?" :jesus:Click to expand...
Additionally, I would remind you -
1Cr 6:12 All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any.
Gal 3:1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you?
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?
You didn't earn your salvation by following the law, but by faith. Following the law has no effect on your salvation. Therefore, it is impossible for not following the law to have an impact on the salvation you have by faith. It is only your faith that saves you. -
Zenas said: ↑So you think having a reprobabe mind means no further chance of salvation.
Hey, Calvinists! He's one of yours!Click to expand... -
John Calvin, Commentary on Romans:
"For he who is ashamed is as yet healable; but when such an impudence is contracted through a sinful habit, that vices, and not virtues, please us, and are approved, there is no more any hope of reformation. Such, then, is the interpretation I give; for I see that the Apostle meant here to condemn something more grievous and more wicked than the very doing of vices: what that is I know not, except we refer to that which is the summit of all wickedness, — that is, when wretched men, having cast away all shame, undertake the patronage of vices in opposition to the righteousness of God." -
Thorwald said: ↑The scriptures tell us, that a believer should remain married to an unbeliever, because the believer may influence the unbelieving spouse to become a believer.
What about Romans 1:28? If the unbeliever is also ungodly, and we are to separate ourselves from the ungodly/unrighteous, does the above, still apply? If God 'turns a person over to a reprobate mind' (no further chance for salvation), then does it not stand to reason, that this person becomes 'spiritually dead'? Why would God demand that we remain married to someone that He has now separated from Himself?
Is it possible, that 'death' in the above example, means either carnal or spiritual death?
When I interpret Romans 1:26-28, I first look at the 'why' reasoning behind the scriptures. God created man and woman, and blessed His creations. Every oriface of the human body, was blessed. The use of these orifaces for any purpose other than those which God Himself blessed, defiles the human body. Homosexualism, is only one of these. Oral sex, sex toys, etc., also defiles the human body. If a person does not stop carrying out these acts, then I believe God 'discards' this person. At this time, the person becomes a true 'zhombie'....carnally alive, but spiritually dead.
This leaves the question, "Does the believing partner, now have the right to re-marry?" :jesus:Click to expand...
http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=1007108&postcount=1
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Yours in Christ,
Bible-boy,
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