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The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
First, Satan has the ability to have great influence on the minds of many Christians.
That's why we're warned to take every thought captive.
What guarantee do you have that you'll be alive tomorrow?
Do you have any idea how ridiculous you sound? You actually implied that Scripture doesn't come from God.
How am I trumping the word of God with my experiences?
My experiences are all about delivering the word of God to the unsaved.
BTW, theoretically, anyone can do that ... Are you against anyone delivering gospel tracts?
Apparently, you don't even know that it is impossible for anyone to understand the things of God without being saved.
Ever see an unsaved person try to understand the NT?

.

Does your baptism in the Spirit experience match the ONLY detailed description of the baptism in the Spirit provided in scripture?

1 ¶ And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.
2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.


1. There was a "sound" they could hear with their PHYSICAL ears
2. There was a sight that "appeared" they could see with their PHYSICAL eyes
3. There was a completion immersion of their PHYSICAL Person.

When the "baptism in the Spirit" occurred in your life was there a "sound" you heard? - "sound of a mighty rushing wind"?

When the "baptism in the Spirit" occurred in your life was there a sight that "appeared" that others could visibly see? "as tongues of fire" upon your head?

When the "baptism in the Spirit" occurred in your life was the room or place in which it occurred completely "filled" so you were PHYSICALLY IMMERSED in its presence?

When the baptism in the Spirit occurred at the house of Cornelius, the NEAREST reference point Peter could compare it with was "AT the beginning" or on Pentecost - Acts 11:15-16.

1. This proves it was not a repetitous act with the over 8000 individuals that had been saved between Acts 2 and the house of Cornelius.

2. This prove it was historically unique and the house of cornelius was the only exception to the rule as it is never again spoken of in the book of Acts.


Does your experience in speaking in tongues compare to the first detailed description of Pentecostal speaking in tongues?

6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. 7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.


1. The Greek word translated "language" in verse 6 and "tongue" in vese 8 is the Greek word "dialektos" from where we get our Engllish word "dialect"

2. The Greek term translated plural "tongues" in verse 11 is "glossais" and first instance proves it is not used to describe human and angelic languages but only various human dialects.

3. These are known dialects that reflect the langauge of the culture they "were born" (v. 8) and then the various cultures are listed in verses 9-11 to reveal exactly what dialects were spoken.

4. All the listeners understood what was being spoken without any need of an interpreter.

5. When tongues are abused and spoken in place they were not designed for (the congregation - 1 Cor. 14:19) among a people they were not designed for ("believers" - 1 Cor. 14:21) they become "unknown" to both the speaker and hearer and need an interpreter.

I have yet to find a Pentecostal/charismatic whose experience of the baptism in the Spirit or speaking in tongues matches the Biblical descriptions. Hence, they are deceptions at best and demonic counterfits (1 Tim. 4:1; 2 Thes. 2:9) at worst.
 
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evangelist-7

New Member
Does your baptism in the Spirit experience match the ONLY detailed description of the baptism in the Spirit provided in scripture?
14 Scripture passages concerning this baptism are in post 63.

I wonder if ANY descriptions of born-again salvation in Scripture match your experience, let alone perfectly match it.

You guys are totally beyond belief in your unbelief.
But, have a nice day anyway ... I sure will.

.
 

Moriah

New Member
Does your baptism in the Spirit experience match the ONLY detailed description of the baptism in the Spirit provided in scripture?

1 ¶ And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.
2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.


1. There was a "sound" they could hear with their PHYSICAL ears
2. There was a sight that "appeared" they could see with their PHYSICAL eyes
3. There was a completion immersion of their PHYSICAL Person.

When the "baptism in the Spirit" occurred in your life was there a "sound" you heard? - "sound of a mighty rushing wind"?

When the "baptism in the Spirit" occurred in your life was there a sight that "appeared" that others could visibly see? "as tongues of fire" upon your head?

When the "baptism in the Spirit" occurred in your life was the room or place in which it occurred completely "filled" so you were PHYSICALLY IMMERSED in its presence?

When the baptism in the Spirit occurred at the house of Cornelius, the NEAREST reference point Peter could compare it with was "AT the beginning" or on Pentecost - Acts 11:15-16.

1. This proves it was not a repetitous act with the over 8000 individuals that had been saved between Acts 2 and the house of Cornelius.

2. This prove it was historically unique and the house of cornelius was the only exception to the rule as it is never again spoken of in the book of Acts.


Does your experience in speaking in tongues compare to the first detailed description of Pentecostal speaking in tongues?

6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. 7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.


1. The Greek word translated "language" in verse 6 and "tongue" in vese 8 is the Greek word "dialektos" from where we get our Engllish word "dialect"

2. The Greek term translated plural "tongues" in verse 11 is "glossais" and first instance proves it is not used to describe human and angelic languages but only various human dialects.

3. These are known dialects that reflect the langauge of the culture they "were born" (v. 8) and then the various cultures are listed in verses 9-11 to reveal exactly what dialects were spoken.

4. All the listeners understood what was being spoken without any need of an interpreter.

5. When tongues are abused and spoken in place they were not designed for (the congregation - 1 Cor. 14:19) among a people they were not designed for ("believers" - 1 Cor. 14:21) they become "unknown" to both the speaker and hearer and need an interpreter.

I have yet to find a Pentecostal/charismatic whose experience of the baptism in the Spirit or speaking in tongues matches the Biblical descriptions. Hence, they are deceptions at best and demonic counterfits (1 Tim. 4:1; 2 Thes. 2:9) at worst.

The time you are talking about in the Bible, when the Holy Spirit comes at Pentecost, that is God testifying to the gospel by signs, wonders and various miracles, and gifts of the Holy Spirit distributed according to his will, Hebrews 2:4.
The scriptures you quoted and ask us if that is baptism in the Holy Spirit and did we all have that exact things happen, that shows you do not understand, that that happening is one of the great signs during the laying of the foundation; and the foundation is laid!

It does not mean the apostles were not at that time baptized in the Holy Spirit. It does not mean that we, when we are baptized with the Holy Spirit that is supposed to happen to us in that exact way.
Speaking in tongues were a sign to the Jews; and the sign has been given. Speaking in tongues ceased. Why do you think it still should be proof now when we are baptized in the Holy Spirit?
You have no understanding.
 

evangelist-7

New Member

KHD,

Experiences are secondary to the Word of God.
If they cannot be backed up by right doctrine then how can one know if they are from God?

Spiritual experiences from God are backed up by right doctrine,
but you need to somehow know what the right doctrine is.

it is impossible for anyone to understand the things of God without being saved.
Ever see an unsaved person try to understand the NT?

When the Holy Spirit gives the revelation that Jesus’ gospel is true,
then people understand and believe the gospel and get saved … in an instant.
No revelation first, no understanding.

.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>

KHD,

Experiences are secondary to the Word of God.
If they cannot be backed up by right doctrine then how can one know if they are from God?

Spiritual experiences from God are backed up by right doctrine,
but you need to somehow know what the right doctrine is.

it is impossible for anyone to understand the things of God without being saved.
Ever see an unsaved person try to understand the NT?

When the Holy Spirit gives the revelation that Jesus’ gospel is true,
then people understand and believe the gospel and get saved … in an instant.
No revelation first, no understanding.

.
Your last statement is especially true:
"No revelation first, no understanding."
The Bible also says: "Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God."
In answer to another of your statements, as I have already answered, Yes I have seen an unsaved person try to understand the NT, and he did. He read through the gospel of John, understood it, was convicted of the Holy Spirit, and was saved. He went on to live for the Lord. Things like that do happen.

The verse in the Bible (1Cor.2:14), "the natural man understands not the things of God for they are spiritually discerned," is a general principle. It is not an all exclusive statement with no exceptions. God does make exceptions. He works through his word. It "is living, a sharp two-edged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit..." God is able to use his word, even without you or me.

The trouble with many is that they use his word deceitfully.
Look at what Peter says:
2 Peter 3:16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.

There are many that use the Scripture, but they do so to their own destruction. Thus it is important to have a good testimony, a testimony that speaks of one's salvation and their right relationship with Christ.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
14 Scripture passages concerning this baptism are in post 63.


The vast majority of those have already been shown by immediate context and the overall context of scripture to have nothing to do with the baptism in the Spirit whatsoever.

Apparently, you don't know the difference between the various works of the Spirit, such as being "filled' versus being "baptized." Try that at the gas pump and baptize your car instead of filling it with gas and see how that works and if there is any difference.

The Spirit came "upon" Old Testament saints and lost sinners to merely empower or equip.

I wonder if ANY descriptions of born-again salvation in Scripture match your experience, let alone perfectly match it.

Of course they do! Indeed the same born again salvation is described before Pentecost as after Pentecost or so says Paul in Romans 8:8-9 (Acts 26:22-23). Of course you are more spiritual than Paul????

Confession is good for your soul. You are confessing you have no concept of the Baptism in the Spirit as depicted in Acts 2:1-3 as that is the ONLY detailed description that is given in God's Word of the baptism in the Spirit and it has NOTHING to do with your counterfit substitute that can be found within Hinduism and New Agism cults.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The time you are talking about in the Bible, when the Holy Spirit comes at Pentecost, that is God testifying to the gospel by signs, wonders and various miracles, and gifts of the Holy Spirit distributed according to his will, Hebrews 2:4.
The scriptures you quoted and ask us if that is baptism in the Holy Spirit and did we all have that exact things happen, that shows you do not understand, that that happening is one of the great signs during the laying of the foundation; and the foundation is laid!

It does not mean the apostles were not at that time baptized in the Holy Spirit. It does not mean that we, when we are baptized with the Holy Spirit that is supposed to happen to us in that exact way.
Speaking in tongues were a sign to the Jews; and the sign has been given. Speaking in tongues ceased. Why do you think it still should be proof now when we are baptized in the Holy Spirit?
You have no understanding.

Acts 1:5 proves that Acts 2:1-3 is an accurate description and ONLY Biblical description given of the Baptism in the Spirit.

Acts 1:5 pinpoints the event to "not many days hence." He said this exactly 10 days prior to Pentecost.

Acts 11:15-16 points back to this occuring in Acts 2:1-3 when Peter said "AT the beginning"

You are speaking ignorantly again! This is the ONLY Biblical description of the Baptism in the Spirit as NO OTHER description is given. Either your doctrine and experience identifies with this description or it does not!. If it does not then you doctrine and experience is OF THE DEVIL not of God.


Other things "filled" and "tongues" are not descriptive of the baptism in the Spirit. Old testament saints were "filled" with the Spirt but the baptism in the Spirit that John spoke of was future and fulfilled on Pentecost. Tongues had been predicted by Isaiah but were for another purpose (Isa. 28;11-14; 1 Cor. 14:20-22).

Your doctrine and description of the Baptism in the Spirit does not harmonize with this Holy Spirit described act in Acts 2:1-3 and so your doctrine is false.
 
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Moriah

New Member
The trouble with many is that they use his word deceitfully.
Look at what Peter says:
2 Peter 3:16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.

There are many that use the Scripture, but they do so to their own destruction.
DHK,
Do you know that people take the no works for salvation from what Paul says? They misunderstand Paul, to their destruction. In 2 Peter 3:16, Peter is speaking about how they misunderstand Paul about no works. Just read what Peter says right before that scripture. See 2 Peter 3:14, Peter says, “…make every effort to be found spotless, blameless and at peace with him.”
Peter tells us to be spotless and blameless; however, you keep speaking against that possibility, you even call to question others salvation if they say such things. You not only speak against being spotless and blameless, you talk against trying not to sin when we want Jesus to save us, you call that to be accursed!
You, DHK, have misunderstood Paul.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
DHK,
Do you know that people take the no works for salvation from what Paul says? They misunderstand Paul, to their destruction. In 2 Peter 3:16, Peter is speaking about how they misunderstand Paul about no works. Just read what Peter says right before that scripture. See 2 Peter 3:14, Peter says, “…make every effort to be found spotless, blameless and at peace with him.”
Peter tells us to be spotless and blameless; however, you keep speaking against that possibility, you even call to question others salvation if they say such things. You not only speak against being spotless and blameless, you talk against trying not to sin when we want Jesus to save us, you call that to be accursed!
You, DHK, have misunderstood Paul.

You don't understand the Pauline teaching of cause versus consequence between conversion and works. You probably can't understand what I am even saying as you lack spiritual discernment in the most simpliest matters of God's Word.

Look at Ephesians 2:8-9 and you will see that conversion is a "gift" and "not of works lest any man should boast"

Look at Ephesians 2:10 and you will see that "good works" are the CONSEQUENCE not the cause of conversion - "created in Christ Jesus UNTO good works"

You probably don't understand the word "unto" which demands "good works" follow rather than are incoporated or precede God's workmanship creating us "in Christ Jesus".

You probably incapable of understanding it has to be God's Work because you cannot CREATE anything.

Sharing scripture with you is useless as you could care less what the Scriptures teach but rather you follow your own "belly" (desires) and invent doctrine as you go along.
 

Moriah

New Member
The vast majority of those have already been shown by immediate context and the overall context of scripture to have nothing to do with the baptism in the Spirit whatsoever.

Apparently, you don't know the difference between the various works of the Spirit, such as being "filled' versus being "baptized." Try that at the gas pump and baptize your car instead of filling it with gas and see how that works and if there is any difference.

The Spirit came "upon" Old Testament saints and lost sinners to merely empower or equip.

I have given you scripture that shows that what happened at Pentecost was about being baptized with the Holy Spirit. Being filled with the Holy Spirit is being baptized in the Holy Spirit.
See Acts 10:44-47.
While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on the Gentiles. For they heard them speaking in tongues and praising God. Then Peter said, “Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy ‘spirit just as we have.
Being filled with the Holy Spirit is being baptized in/with the Holy Spirit.
 

Moriah

New Member
You don't understand the Pauline teaching of cause versus consequence between conversion and works. You probably can't understand what I am even saying as you lack spiritual discernment in the most simpliest matters of God's Word.
Oh I understand the work of the devil, that you have been ensnared to do.
You are the one who misunderstands Paul to your destruction. Someone with a sound mind can see easily that your teaching is from the devil, to say one is accursed and not saved just for saying they try not to sin when they want Jesus to say them.
It is never okay to sin.
Look at Ephesians 2:8-9 and you will see that conversion is a "gift" and "not of works lest any man should boast"
That is more of your misunderstanding of what Paul says.

Look at Ephesians 2:10 and you will see that "good works" are the CONSEQUENCE not the cause of conversion - "created in Christ Jesus UNTO good works"
Paul is speaking of the type of good works such as inviting people into your home and taking good care of them! That is the type of good works that do not save. That would be like trying to buy being saved. That is not about not sinning! Again, you misunderstand Paul to your destruction.
Paul in Ephesians 2:10 had just got through thanking the Ephesians for how they treated the saints.
You probably don't understand the word "unto" which demands "good works" follow rather than are incoporated or precede God's workmanship creating us "in Christ Jesus".
You are the one who does not understand. Not committing adultery on your wife is not a good work. However, inviting her family over and taking care of them during their stay is a good work.


Sharing scripture with you is useless as you could care less what the Scriptures teach but rather you follow your own "belly" (desires) and invent doctrine as you go along.
Just listen to what the spirit inside you says. I know you by what comes from your heart.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Being filled with the Holy Spirit is being baptized in the Holy Spirit..

How good are you at thinking logical? Not very good I think. Let me demonstrate what I am saying:

The same man - John the Baptist

1. Was "FILLED" with the Spirit from His mother's womb -

2. Yet when approximately 31 years of age the same John Predicted that the baptism in the Spirit was yet FUTURE.

3. When Jesus was approxiately 33 and half years old He still claimed the baptism in the Spirit which John spoke predicted was "not many days hence" - Acts 1:5.


According to your logic, John was baptized in the Spirit in his mother's womb because you make "filling" and "baptism" synonymous with each other.

According to your logic John lied when he said the baptism in the Spirit was yet future and Christ lied when he said the baptism in the Spirit was yet future.

Go down to the gas station and ask the gas attendant to "baptize" your car with gas and then come back and tell me there is no difference between "filling" and "baptism."
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Someone with a sound mind

Apparently that person is not you as you are incapble of understanding just English written in simple terms.

"For by grace are ye saved through faith AND THAT NOT OF YOURSELVES, it is a GIFT OF GOD, NOT OF WORKS LEST ANY MAN SHOULD BOAST"


It simply says what it says. It denies that conversion where faith is exercised is "of yourselves" but it is a "gift of God" and it is "not of works."

You have such a darkened spiritual mind that you cannot even comprehend simple English words.

"For we are HIS WORKmanship CREATED in Christ Jesus"

This is Paul's explanation for that coversions in verse 8. It is "not of yourselves" because it is a work that only God can do, because only God can create and this is "his workmanship CREATED"


"unto good works" is the consequence of God's creative Work. It is the CONSEQUENCE. It is what God can call "good" becuase it comes from a creative work which God made the cause for any "good" a child of God does.

Jesus said it this way, only a good tree produces good fruit, make the tree good FIRST then the fruit will be good.


However, this something you have never experienced because you obviously do not even know what he is talkng about and on top of that you deny the truth of what he is demanding. He is demanding that a good nature must first exist before good fruit can be produced. Look at your garden and it will tell you the same truth.

That is why Jesus said "THERE IS NONE GOOD but ONE and that is GOD" and that is precisely why Jesus said "ye MUST be born again".

All these things are foreign to you and you hate and despise them because you simply have never experienced any of them and it is self-evident from your denial and perversions of these truths.
 
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Moriah

New Member
The same man - John the Baptist
1. Was "FILLED" with the Spirit from His mother's womb -
2. Yet when approximately 31 years of age the same John Predicted that the baptism in the Spirit was yet FUTURE.
3. When Jesus was approxiately 33 and half years old He still claimed the baptism in the Spirit which John spoke predicted was "not many days hence" - Acts 1:5.
According to your logic, John was baptized in the Spirit in his mother's womb because you make "filling" and "baptism" synonymous with each other.
In the Old Testament, the Prophets were filled with the Holy Spirit, so that the Holy Spirit could speak through them, to the people. I can give you scriptures for this if you would like.

After people were baptized and given the Holy Spirit to live inside them, the Holy Spirit gave those gifts, so that God could testify to the gospel.

To be filled with the Holy Spirit in the New Testament, was also at that time when some were given the Holy Spirit for the first time. Read these following scriptures.
Paul asks if they received the Holy Spirit when they believed. If receiving the Holy Spirit is not an individual happening, as you are saying, then why would Paul even ask if they received the Holy Spirit WHEN THEY BELIEVED?
Acts 19:1-5 shows us people receiving the Holy Spirit for the first time AND being filled, that it was evident by their speaking in tongues and prophesied.

Acts 19:1-6 While Apollos was at Corinth, Paul took the road through the interior and arrived at Ephesus. There he found some disciples and asked them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?” They answered, "No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit." So Paul asked, "Then what baptism did you receive?" "John's baptism," they replied. Paul said, "John's baptism was a baptism of repentance. He told the people to believe in the one coming after him, that is, in Jesus." On hearing this they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. When Paul placed his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied.

Nowadays, when one is trying to overcome a sin in their life, they can feel the in filling of the Holy Spirit through out their whole body, or even while worshipping God, in prayer and meditation of His word.
 
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Moriah

New Member
Apparently that person is not you as you are incapble of understanding just English written in simple terms.

"For by grace are ye saved through faith AND THAT NOT OF YOURSELVES, it is a GIFT OF GOD, NOT OF WORKS LEST ANY MAN SHOULD BOAST"


It simply says what it says. It denies that conversion where faith is exercised is "of yourselves" but it is a "gift of God" and it is "not of works."

You have such a darkened spiritual mind that you cannot even comprehend simple English words.

"For we are HIS WORKmanship CREATED in Christ Jesus"

This is Paul's explanation for that coversions in verse 8. It is "not of yourselves" because it is a work that only God can do, because only God can create and this is "his workmanship CREATED"


"unto good works" is the consequence of God's creative Work. It is the CONSEQUENCE. It is what God can call "good" becuase it comes from a creative work which God made the cause for any "good" a child of God does.

Jesus said it this way, only a good tree produces good fruit, make the tree good FIRST then the fruit will be good.


However, this something you have never experienced because you obviously do not even know what he is talkng about and on top of that you deny the truth of what he is demanding. He is demanding that a good nature must first exist before good fruit can be produced. Look at your garden and it will tell you the same truth.

That is why Jesus said "THERE IS NONE GOOD but ONE and that is GOD" and that is precisely why Jesus said "ye MUST be born again".

All these things are foreign to you and you hate and despise them because you simply have never experienced any of them and it is self-evident from your denial and perversions of these truths.

You have described yourself perfectly.

Everything you falsely accuse me with, it is what you are.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You have described yourself perfectly.


Everything you falsely accuse me with, it is what you are.

This is your response to simplicity?

You can't even understand it when we break it down in small bite size terms. Can't spell it out simplier than I did.
 
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The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
In the Old Testament, the Prophets were filled with the Holy Spirit, so that the Holy Spirit could speak through them, to the people. I can give you scriptures for this if you would like.

After people were baptized and given the Holy Spirit to live inside them, the Holy Spirit gave those gifts, so that God could testify to the gospel.

To be filled with the Holy Spirit in the New Testament, was also at that time when some were given the Holy Spirit for the first time. Read these following scriptures.
Paul asks if they received the Holy Spirit when they believed. If receiving the Holy Spirit is not an individual happening, as you are saying, then why would Paul even ask if they received the Holy Spirit WHEN THEY BELIEVED?
Acts 19:1-5 shows us people receiving the Holy Spirit for the first time AND being filled, that it was evident by their speaking in tongues and prophesied.

Acts 19:1-6 While Apollos was at Corinth, Paul took the road through the interior and arrived at Ephesus. There he found some disciples and asked them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?” They answered, "No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit." So Paul asked, "Then what baptism did you receive?" "John's baptism," they replied. Paul said, "John's baptism was a baptism of repentance. He told the people to believe in the one coming after him, that is, in Jesus." On hearing this they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. When Paul placed his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied.

Nowadays, when one is trying to overcome a sin in their life, they can feel the in filling of the Holy Spirit through out their whole body, or even while worshipping God, in prayer and meditation of His word.

Are you on prescribed medication? You said that being filled and being baptized in the Spirit are the same thing.


Being filled with the Holy Spirit is being baptized in the Holy Spirit.. - Moriah

I just quoted your own words, word for word.


Now you are changing your tune and saying they are not the same but can happen together. Which is it?
 

Moriah

New Member
Are you on prescribed medication?
Wow, how honored I am to be so accused by you. The disciples were accused of being drunk. I am in good company.

You said that being filled and being baptized in the Spirit are the same thing.

I guess if it would have happened to you the way it did to me, then you would understand.


Now you are changing your tune and saying they are not the same but can happen together. Which is it?

I am not changing my tune. Tell me, when the apostles received the Holy Spirit at Pentecost, did they ever lose the Holy Spirit after that?

You see, they received power when the Holy Spirit came on them.

They received the baptism of the Holy Spirit.

All those who obey Jesus receive the Holy Spirit to live inside them.
 

evangelist-7

New Member

This was posted in a thread of mine elsewhere yesterday ...


I know how this sounds but gonna say it anyway.
I am an Expert on how the word baptism was used in the New Testament.

I researched this subject over 20 years ago (objectively - the only research that counts)
and was shocked to learn that Jesus never commanded a watery baptism for the church age.
I ended up convincing a Greek Scholar and a Pastor of one of the Largest churches in his State.
Both of whom, came out swinging at first to defend their programmed beliefs on this subject.
The view was: "If commanded by Jesus it must be important for us to do it"!

Indeed it would be if there was such a command since a command is by definition a "necessary prescription"!
Old School Catholics claim it's necessary, while Protestants compromise and say "It's a "should" not a must.
Both make no sense!
There isn't a drop of water mentioned in the Great Commission accounts (last chapters of Matt, Mark & Luke).
Matt. & Mark have been made to look like a watery command because of how the RCC manipulated the text by saying "baptism is baptism" and means in water. Your thread proves this is an error put out by ax grinders to take the Spirituality out of scripture and replace it with physical rituals which can never bring an inward change in a person.
Anyway back to the text. Peter's command in Acts 10 is of his opinion.
For years I couldn't figure out why Peter went against Jesus' Acts 1:5 …
"John truly baptized with WATER but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days hence".

Jewish baptism was in water (physical) but the baptism for the church was to be inward/spiritual according to Jesus.
Took me 2 years to realize that the same verse of Jesus that came back to mind time and again (acts 1:5) was also recalled to Peter's mind and stated in Acts 11:16. This recalling is no doubt a correction from the Holy Spirit.

Peter is not the first infallible Pope. For years people were taught by the RCC that he was so they didn't challenge his command for the gentiles to be water baptized, something they obviously didn't need since they had already been saved. Jews got water baptized for repentance which comes b4 salvation not after it.
What I also find shocking about Christianity is the fact that Scholar after Scholar points to 1 cor. 1 and basically says
"He Paul is shown to water baptize there so that is proof of the importance of watery baptism"!

How can anyone ignore "I thank God that I only baptized a FEW"?
and also ignore "Christ sent me not to baptize but to preach the gospel"?
All they see is that Paul baptized in water? Wow!!!! Is it any wonder that there is so much confusion
on Christian Forums and in the World about Scripture, etc.?

In closing: You are right on, by pointing out how important spiritual baptism is in Acts 10 & 11.
The Jewish Converts in Jerusalem weren't convinced by Peter's watery command
(He purposely said nothing about it in Acts 11 when talking to them) Check it out!
There was no need to since he took correction from the Holy Spirit on which baptism was important.
The same one that convinced the Jewish Converts that these Gentiles were indeed no part of the Church age.

Notice that he researched this subject for 20 years objectively, i.e. with no biases. Praise the Lord.
But there is a very serious problem with this dude ...
he didn't also provide his salvation testimony, so everything he has testified to must be considered as bogus!
"Tis a shame! Oh, well ... let's move on and crucify the next dude who shows up who doesn't agree with us.

.
 
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